NEET-PG 2013 - Orthopaedics Practice Questions

Q: Madelung's deformity is characterized by an abnormality in which bone?

Distal radius. ***Distal radius*** - **Madelung's deformity** is primarily characterized by a **malformation of the distal radius**, specifically the physis (growth plate). - This leads to abnormal growth, causing the **radius to shorten and bow** dorsally, resulting in a prominent distal ulna. *Humerus* - The **humerus** is the bone of the upper arm, and abnormalities of this bone are not characteristic of Madelung's deformity. - Conditions affecting the humerus typically involve the shoulder or elbow joint, distinct from the wrist pathology seen in Madelung's. *Proximal ulna* - The **proximal ulna** forms part of the elbow joint, and while the ulna can be affected, the primary abnormality in Madelung's is in the radius. - While the ulna may appear prominent, this is secondary to the radial deformity, not a primary issue of the proximal ulna. *Carpals* - The **carpal bones** are located in the wrist, distal to the radius and ulna, and are not the primary site of deformity in Madelung's. - While wrist motion may be affected, the underlying cause is the abnormal growth of the distal radius, which can then impact carpal alignment.

Q: Garden spade deformity is seen in ?

Smith's fracture. ***Smith's fracture*** - This fracture involves **volar displacement** of the distal radial fragment, causing the characteristic **garden spade deformity** or **reverse Colles' fracture**. - It typically results from a fall onto a **flexed wrist** or a direct blow to the back of the wrist. *Colle’s fracture* - This fracture is characterized by **dorsal displacement** of the distal radial fragment, leading to a **dinner fork deformity**. - It usually occurs from a fall onto an **extended wrist**. *Bennett’s fracture* - This is an **intra-articular fracture** of the base of the **first metacarpal bone**, involving the carpometacarpal joint. - It is often caused by axial loading on a partially flexed thumb. *Barton’s fracture* - This is an **intra-articular fracture** of the distal radius involving either the **dorsal or volar rim**. - It is essentially a **shear fracture** with associated carpal displacement.

Q: Whiplash injury is a tear of which ligament?

Post. longitudinal ligament. ***Post. longitudinal ligament*** - Whiplash injury, often caused by **hyperextension-hyperflexion** of the cervical spine, commonly results in a tear of the **posterior longitudinal ligament**. - This ligament is crucial for stabilizing the spine and preventing **hyperflexion**, making it vulnerable during sudden, forceful movements. *Ligamenta flava* - The **ligamenta flava** are located on the posterior aspect of the vertebral canal and are primarily composed of elastic tissue, providing flexibility. - While they can be injured in severe trauma, they are less commonly implicated in typical whiplash compared to the **posterior longitudinal ligament**. *Anterior longitudinal ligament* - The **anterior longitudinal ligament** is primarily involved in preventing **hyperextension** of the spine. - While it can be injured in whiplash, the hyperextension phase typically stresses this ligament, but the hyperflexion rebound phase is more damaging to posterior structures. *Supraspinal ligament* - The **supraspinal ligament** connects the tips of the spinous processes and primarily limits **flexion** of the spine. - While it can be strained during whiplash, it is not the primary ligament commonly torn in typical whiplash injuries, which often involve deeper spinal ligaments.

Q: Block vertebrae are seen in which condition?

Klippel-Feil syndrome. ***Klippel-Feil syndrome*** - **Block vertebrae** are a characteristic radiographic finding in **Klippel-Feil syndrome**, resulting from the congenital fusion of two or more cervical vertebrae. - This fusion leads to a **short neck**, **low hairline**, and **restricted neck motion**. *Pagets disease* - **Paget's disease** is a chronic condition of abnormal bone remodeling, leading to enlarged and weakened bones. - While it can cause vertebral body changes, **block vertebrae** resulting from congenital fusion are not a typical feature. *Leukemia* - **Leukemia** involves uncontrolled proliferation of abnormal white blood cells, which can infiltrate bone marrow and cause lytic or blastic lesions in bones. - It does not cause **block vertebrae**, which are a developmental anomaly. *TB* - **Tuberculosis (TB) of the spine (Pott's disease)** is an infectious condition causing vertebral destruction, collapse, and kyphosis. - While TB can lead to vertebral collapse and eventual fusion during healing, the primary pathology is destructive and not the congenital fusion seen as **block vertebrae**.

Q: What is a Hangman's fracture?

Fracture dislocation of C2. ***Fracture dislocation of C2*** - A Hangman's fracture classically refers to a **bilateral fracture of the pars interarticularis of the axis (C2)**, often with an associated anterior subluxation of C2 on C3. - This injury is typically caused by **hyperextension-distraction forces**, such as those experienced in judicial hangings or motor vehicle accidents. *Subluxation of C5 over C6* - While cervical subluxations are serious, a **C5-C6 subluxation** does not specifically describe a Hangman's fracture. - This type of injury involves different vertebral levels and typically results from different mechanisms. *Fracture dislocation of ankle joint* - This option refers to an injury in the **lower limb**, completely unrelated to the cervical spine. - A Hangman's fracture is a specific type of **cervical vertebral fracture**. *Fracture of odontoid* - A fracture of the odontoid process involves the **dens (odontoid process)** of C2. - This is a distinct type of C2 fracture from a Hangman's fracture, which involves the **pars interarticularis**.

Q: Pilon fracture is

Distal tibia Intraarticular fracture. ***Distal tibia Intraarticular fracture*** - A **pilon fracture** specifically refers to an **intra-articular fracture of the distal tibia**, involving the weight-bearing surface of the **ankle joint**. - These fractures typically result from high-energy axial loading mechanisms, driving the talus into the plafond and causing extensive articular damage. *Bimalleolar fracture* - A **bimalleolar fracture** involves fractures of both the **medial malleolus** (distal tibia) and the **lateral malleolus** (distal fibula). - While it involves the ankle, it does not necessarily involve the **tibial plafond** articular surface in the same destructive manner as a pilon fracture. *Trimalleolar fracture* - A **trimalleolar fracture** includes fractures of the medial, lateral, and **posterior malleolus** (a portion of the distal tibia). - Like bimalleolar fractures, it primarily describes the involvement of the malleoli rather than the intra-articular surface load-bearing portion of the distal tibia. *Proximal tibia fracture* - This term refers to a fracture occurring in the **upper part of the tibia**, near the knee joint. - It does not involve the **distal end of the tibia** or the ankle joint, which is characteristic of a pilon fracture.

Q: Most common cause of kyphotic deformity ?

Osteoporosis. ***Osteoporosis*** - **Osteoporosis** leads to vertebral compression fractures, particularly in the thoracic spine, which causes a gradual collapse of the vertebral bodies and an increase in the kyphotic curve. - This condition is very common, especially in **postmenopausal women** and the elderly, making it the most frequent cause of kyphotic deformity. *Trauma* - While significant **spinal trauma** can lead to kyphotic deformities, it is generally less common than the gradual kyphosis resulting from osteoporosis. - Traumatic kyphosis usually results from severe injuries leading to **vertebral body collapse** or neurological deficits. *Ankylosing spondylitis* - **Ankylosing spondylitis** can cause severe kyphosis, often referred to as a "bamboo spine," due to chronic inflammation and fusion of the vertebrae. - However, it is a less prevalent condition compared to **osteoporosis-related kyphosis**. *Rickets* - **Rickets**, a childhood bone disorder caused by **vitamin D deficiency**, can lead to bone deformities including kyphosis due to softened bones. - While a cause in children, its prevalence is lower than osteoporosis globally as a cause of kyphosis and it primarily affects a different age group.

Q: Thurston Holland sign is seen in ?

Type II. ***Type II*** - The **Thurston Holland sign** is characteristic of a **Salter-Harris Type II fracture**, often described as a metaphyseal fragment (the "Thurston Holland fragment") remaining attached to the epiphyseal plate. - This fragment typically occurs at the corner of the **metaphysis**, making the fracture line extend obliquely through the physis and then along the metaphysis. *Type I* - A **Salter-Harris Type I fracture** involves a clean horizontal separation through the **growth plate (physis)** without involving the metaphysis or epiphysis. - No metaphyseal fragment is seen in Type I fractures, distinguishing it from the Thurston Holland sign. *Type III* - **Salter-Harris Type III fractures** extend from the **physis into the epiphysis**, creating an intra-articular fracture involving the joint surface. - These fractures do not involve a metaphyseal fragment, as they solely affect the physis and epiphysis. *Type IV* - **Salter-Harris Type IV fractures** involve a fracture line extending through the **epiphysis, physis, and metaphysis**, effectively dividing the bone into three parts. - While complex, Type IV injuries do not specifically describe the characteristic metaphyseal fragment that defines the Thurston Holland sign.

Q: Bulge sign in the knee joint is seen after how much fluid accumulation?

< 30 ml. **< 30 ml** - The **bulge sign** is a sensitive test for detecting small amounts of **effusion** in the knee joint. - It is typically positive with as little as 4-8 mL to 10-30 mL of fluid, making "< 30 mL" the most appropriate answer. *100 ml* - An effusion of 100 mL is a **moderate to large amount** of fluid, which would typically elicit a positive **patellar tap test (ballottement)** rather than just a bulge sign. - The **bulge sign** is designed to detect much smaller effusions. *400 ml* - This represents a **very large effusion** that would be clinically obvious and cause significant swelling and discomfort, far exceeding the threshold for a simple bulge sign. - A knee with 400 mL of fluid would likely have a tense, bulging appearance and a very prominent **patellar tap**. *200 ml* - This is also a **significant effusion** that would easily be detected by a patellar tap test and would present with gross swelling. - The **bulge sign** is specifically for subtler fluid collections.

Question 1

What is the characteristic feature of Barton's fracture?

Accepted Answer

Intra-articular fracture of the distal end radius with carpal bone subluxation and joint involvement

Answer

Extra-articular fracture of the distal end radius

Answer

Intra-articular fracture of the distal end radius without carpal bone subluxation

Answer

Intra-articular fracture of the distal end radius with carpal bone subluxation

Question 2

Madelung's deformity is characterized by an abnormality in which bone?

Accepted Answer

Distal radius

Answer

Humerus

Answer

Proximal ulna

Answer

Carpals

Question 3

Garden spade deformity is seen in ?

Accepted Answer

Smith's fracture

Answer

Colle’s fracture

Answer

Bennett’s fracture

Answer

Barton’s fracture

Question 4

Whiplash injury is a tear of which ligament?

Accepted Answer

Post. longitudinal ligament

Answer

Ligamenta flava

Answer

Supraspinal ligament

Answer

Anterior longitudinal ligament

Question 5

Block vertebrae are seen in which condition?

Accepted Answer

Klippel-Feil syndrome

Answer

Pagets disease

Answer

Leukemia

Answer

TB

Question 6

What is a Hangman's fracture?

Accepted Answer

Fracture dislocation of C2

Answer

Fracture dislocation of ankle joint

Answer

Fracture of odontoid

Answer

Subluxation of C5 over C6

Question 7

Pilon fracture is

Accepted Answer

Distal tibia Intraarticular fracture

Answer

Bimalleolar fracture

Answer

Trimalleolar fracture

Answer

Proximal tibia fracture

Question 8

Most common cause of kyphotic deformity ?

Accepted Answer

Osteoporosis

Answer

Trauma

Answer

Ankylosing spondylitis

Answer

Rickets

Question 9

Thurston Holland sign is seen in ?

Accepted Answer

Type II

Answer

Type I

Answer

Type III

Answer

Type IV

Question 10

Bulge sign in the knee joint is seen after how much fluid accumulation?

Accepted Answer

< 30 ml

Answer

200 ml

Answer

100 ml

Answer

400 ml

NEET-PG 2013 — Orthopaedics