What is the most likely cause of yellow-green watery discharge and pruritus in a female patient?
Which of the following is the most common genital infection in pregnancy?
Which drug is associated with decreased fetal heart rate during labor?
What is the standard dose of mifepristone in medical termination of pregnancy (MTP)?
A young sexually active female presents with intense pruritus and watery discharge. What is the most likely causative organism?
Which organism causes puerperal sepsis?
All are true about constriction rings except which of the following?
What is the preferred treatment option for a 21-year-old college girl with mild endometriosis?
Which of the following symptoms is least commonly associated with endometriosis?
USG of 28 weeks gestation showing oligohydramnios is likely to be due to?
NEET-PG 2013 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 61: What is the most likely cause of yellow-green watery discharge and pruritus in a female patient?
- A. Candida
- B. Bacterial vaginosis
- C. Chlamydia trachomatis
- D. Trichomonas vaginalis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Trichomonas vaginalis (Correct)*** - The characteristic presentation of **yellow-green, frothy, watery vaginal discharge** with associated **pruritus** is highly suggestive of **trichomoniasis**. - Other clinical findings may include **dyspareunia**, **dysuria**, and a **"strawberry cervix"** on speculum examination. - Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the protozoan *Trichomonas vaginalis*. *Candida (Incorrect)* - **Candidiasis** (yeast infection) typically presents with **thick, white, cottage cheese-like discharge** and severe pruritus, often described as a burning sensation. - The discharge is usually not watery or yellow-green, and the characteristic fishy odor is absent. - pH is typically normal (<4.5), unlike trichomoniasis where pH is elevated (>4.5). *Bacterial vaginosis (Incorrect)* - **Bacterial vaginosis** is characterized by a **thin, gray-white discharge** with a **fishy odor**, especially after intercourse or with alkalinization. - The discharge is not typically yellow-green or frothy. - Pruritus may be present but is usually less prominent than with candidiasis or trichomoniasis. *Chlamydia trachomatis (Incorrect)* - **Chlamydia** infection is often **asymptomatic** in women (up to 70% of cases), but when symptoms occur, they may include **mucopurulent cervical discharge**, intermenstrial bleeding, or lower abdominal pain. - It does not typically cause the **profuse, frothy, yellow-green discharge** with significant pruritus described in this clinical presentation. - Chlamydia primarily causes cervicitis rather than vaginitis.
Question 62: Which of the following is the most common genital infection in pregnancy?
- A. Vaginal candidiasis (Correct Answer)
- B. Gonorrhea
- C. Chlamydia
- D. Bacterial vaginosis
Explanation: ***Vaginal candidiasis*** - **Vaginal candidiasis**, commonly known as a yeast infection, is the **most frequent genital infection** during pregnancy due to hormonal changes that alter the vaginal microenvironment. - Pregnancy increases susceptibility through **elevated estrogen levels**, **increased vaginal glycogen**, and **altered vaginal pH**. - While generally not harmful to the fetus, it can cause significant maternal discomfort with symptoms like **itching**, burning, and a **thick, white, cottage cheese-like discharge**. *Gonorrhea* - Gonorrhea is a **sexually transmitted infection (STI)** that, although possible, is not the most common genital infection in pregnancy. - It carries a risk of serious complications for both mother and infant, including **preterm birth**, **chorioamnionitis**, and **neonatal conjunctivitis** (ophthalmia neonatorum). *Chlamydia* - Chlamydia is another **STI** that can occur during pregnancy but is not as common as candidiasis. - Untreated chlamydia can lead to **preterm rupture of membranes**, **preterm labor**, and **postpartum endometritis** in the mother, and **conjunctivitis** or **pneumonia** in the newborn. *Bacterial vaginosis* - Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common vaginal infection caused by an **imbalance in normal vaginal flora**, with overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria. - While BV is the most common vaginal infection in **non-pregnant women**, vaginal candidiasis is more frequently encountered during pregnancy due to hormonal changes. - BV in pregnancy is associated with increased risk of **preterm birth**, **preterm rupture of membranes**, and **postpartum endometritis**, making screening and treatment important.
Question 63: Which drug is associated with decreased fetal heart rate during labor?
- A. Oxytocin (Correct Answer)
- B. Sodium bicarbonate
- C. IV fluids
- D. Iron
Explanation: ***Oxytocin*** - **Oxytocin** stimulates uterine contractions, which can reduce blood flow to the placenta and temporarily decrease **fetal oxygenation**, leading to **fetal heart rate decelerations**. - Overstimulation of the uterus by oxytocin can result in **tachysystole** (>5 contractions in 10 minutes), potentially causing **fetal hypoxia** and associated changes in fetal heart rate patterns such as late decelerations or bradycardia. *Sodium bicarbonate* - **Sodium bicarbonate** is used to correct metabolic acidosis, but it does not directly affect **fetal heart rate** or uterine activity in a way that causes decelerations. - Its administration is unlikely to impact fetal heart rate unless the underlying condition causing acidosis also affects fetal well-being, which is not a direct drug effect. *IV fluids* - **Intravenous fluids** are often administered during labor to maintain hydration and support maternal circulation, which generally helps improve **fetal well-being** and maintain normal fetal heart rate patterns. - They can help optimize **uterine perfusion**, thereby improving oxygen delivery to the fetus and reducing the risk of fetal distress. *Iron* - **Iron** is essential for red blood cell production and preventing maternal anemia; it has no direct or acute effect on **fetal heart rate** during labor. - Administered as a supplement, iron is not a medication used during labor to impact **uterine contractility** or fetal heart rate in the way oxytocin does.
Question 64: What is the standard dose of mifepristone in medical termination of pregnancy (MTP)?
- A. 10mg
- B. 20mg
- C. 200mg (Correct Answer)
- D. 100mg
Explanation: ***200mg*** - The standard dose of **mifepristone** for medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) is **200mg orally**. - This dose is typically followed 24-48 hours later by a **prostaglandin analog** (e.g., misoprostol) to complete the termination process. *10mg* - This dose is significantly lower than the recommended therapeutic dose for medical abortion. - Such a low dose would likely be **ineffective** in achieving termination. *20 mg* - This dose is also much lower than the standard therapeutic recommendation. - It would not adequately block progesterone receptors to initiate the termination process effectively. *100mg* - While closer to the standard dose, 100mg is still considered **sub-therapeutic** for many individuals undergoing medical abortion. - A lower efficacy rate would be expected compared to the 200mg dose.
Question 65: A young sexually active female presents with intense pruritus and watery discharge. What is the most likely causative organism?
- A. Chlamydia trachomatis
- B. Candida albicans
- C. Gardnerella vaginalis
- D. Trichomonas vaginalis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Trichomonas vaginalis*** - **Trichomoniasis** commonly presents with **intense vulvovaginal pruritus**, a **frothy, greenish-yellow discharge**, and sometimes a **strawberry cervix**. - It is a **sexually transmitted infection (STI)** caused by a flagellated protozoan. *Candida vaginitis* - Typically causes severe **pruritus**, **dysuria**, and a **thick, white, curd-like discharge**, often without the watery characteristic. - Known as a **yeast infection**, it is caused by an overgrowth of *Candida* species. *Gardnerella vaginalis* - Associated with **bacterial vaginosis**, which presents with a **thin, grayish-white discharge** and a **fishy odor**, especially after intercourse, but usually less intense pruritus. - It's characterized by an imbalance of vaginal flora rather than being a true STI in the same sense as trichomoniasis. *Chlamydia trachomatis* - Often causes **asymptomatic infections** or symptoms such as **mucopurulent discharge**, **dysuria**, or **post-coital bleeding**, but usually **not intense pruritus** or watery discharge. - It is a **bacterial STI** known for causing cervicitis and pelvic inflammatory disease.
Question 66: Which organism causes puerperal sepsis?
- A. Group A beta hemolytic streptococci (Correct Answer)
- B. CMV
- C. Toxoplasma gondii
- D. Group B beta hemolytic streptococci
Explanation: ***Group A beta hemolytic streptococci*** - **Group A Streptococcus (GAS)**, specifically *Streptococcus pyogenes*, is the **classic and most important cause of puerperal sepsis** (puerperal fever). - Historically, GAS was responsible for devastating epidemics of puerperal fever in maternity wards before the introduction of antiseptic practices by Ignaz Semmelweis. - GAS causes severe, rapidly progressive postpartum infections with **high morbidity and mortality** if untreated. - Clinically presents with fever, severe uterine tenderness, and can progress to **toxic shock syndrome** and septicemia. *Group B beta hemolytic streptococci* - **Group B Streptococcus (GBS)**, *Streptococcus agalactiae*, can cause postpartum endometritis and maternal infections. - However, GBS is **more commonly associated with neonatal sepsis** rather than being the primary cause of classic puerperal sepsis. - While it can colonize the genital tract and cause infection, it is not the historical or most severe cause of puerperal fever. *CMV* - **Cytomegalovirus (CMV)** is a viral infection that causes congenital infections when transmitted in utero. - It is not a bacterial cause of **puerperal sepsis**, which is primarily a bacterial postpartum infection. *Toxoplasma gondii* - **Toxoplasma gondii** is a parasite causing toxoplasmosis, which can lead to congenital abnormalities. - It is not associated with **puerperal sepsis**, which is a bacterial infection of the postpartum period.
Question 67: All are true about constriction rings except which of the following?
- A. Can be caused by excessive use of oxytocin.
- B. Also known as Schroeder's ring. (Correct Answer)
- C. Ring can be palpated per abdomen
- D. Inhalation of amyl nitrate can relax the ring.
Explanation: ***Also known as Schroeder's ring.*** - This statement is **INCORRECT** and is the correct answer to this "except" question. - **Schroeder's ring** is NOT synonymous with constriction rings. Schroeder's ring is a **physiological retraction ring** at the junction of the upper and lower uterine segments, which is a normal finding. - **Constriction rings** are **pathological, localized spastic contractions** of the uterine muscle at any level, causing obstruction to fetal descent. They differ from Bandl's pathological retraction ring. *Can be caused by excessive use of oxytocin.* - **Excessive oxytocin** can lead to **uterine hyperstimulation** and **incoordinate uterine contractions**, which may result in the formation of constriction rings. - This is a known iatrogenic cause of pathological constriction rings during labor. *Ring can be palpated per abdomen* - **Constriction rings** can sometimes be palpated as a **depression or groove** on the uterine surface during abdominal examination when they are well-developed. - They present as localized areas of myometrial spasm that may be clinically detectable. *Inhalation of amyl nitrate can relax the ring.* - **Amyl nitrite** (or amyl nitrate) is a **smooth muscle relaxant** that can be used to relax uterine constriction rings. - It acts as a **vasodilator** and **uterine relaxant**, temporarily relieving the spastic contraction to facilitate delivery or manual manipulation.
Question 68: What is the preferred treatment option for a 21-year-old college girl with mild endometriosis?
- A. Cyclical OC pill
- B. Continuous OC pill (Correct Answer)
- C. Progesterone only pill
- D. Danazole
Explanation: ***Continuous OC pill*** - For **mild endometriosis** in a young woman, **continuous oral contraceptive pills (OCP)** are the **first-line medical treatment** according to current evidence-based guidelines (ACOG, ESHRE). - Continuous OCP use provides better suppression of endometriosis by creating a **stable hormonal environment** that prevents cyclic menstrual bleeding and retrograde menstruation, which can worsen endometriosis. - This approach effectively manages symptoms like **dysmenorrhea** and **pelvic pain** while preserving future fertility, and is well-tolerated in young women with the added benefit of menstrual suppression. *Cyclical OC pill* - While cyclical OCPs can help manage endometriosis symptoms, they are **less effective** than continuous OCPs because they allow withdrawal bleeding, which may perpetuate retrograde menstruation and endometrial implant stimulation. - Cyclical OCPs may still provide symptom relief but are considered a **second-line option** when continuous use is not acceptable to the patient. *Progesterone only pill* - **Progesterone-only pills (POP)** can suppress endometriosis by inducing amenorrhea and decidualization of endometrial implants, but they may cause **irregular bleeding patterns**, especially in the first few months. - While effective, they are generally considered when combined OCPs are contraindicated (e.g., migraine with aura, thrombotic risk) rather than as first-line for uncomplicated mild endometriosis. *Danazole* - **Danazol** is an androgenic agent that creates a hypoestrogenic environment, leading to atrophy of endometrial tissue, but it is **rarely used today** due to significant androgenic side effects. - Common side effects include **acne**, **hirsutism**, **weight gain**, and **voice deepening**, which are often unacceptable for a 21-year-old woman, making it an obsolete option for first-line management of mild endometriosis.
Question 69: Which of the following symptoms is least commonly associated with endometriosis?
- A. Vaginal discharge (Correct Answer)
- B. Infertility
- C. Chronic pelvic pain
- D. Dyspareunia
Explanation: ***Vaginal discharge*** - **Vaginal discharge** is a symptom more commonly associated with **infections or cervical issues**, rather than endometriosis. - While women with endometriosis may experience occasional discharge, it is **not a primary or characteristic symptom** of the condition itself. *Infertility* - **Infertility** is a very common issue for women with endometriosis, affecting their ability to conceive due to **inflammation, scarring, and anatomical distortion** of reproductive organs. - Endometrial implants can **disrupt ovarian function**, block fallopian tubes, and create a hostile uterine environment. *Chronic pelvic pain* - **Chronic pelvic pain** is the hallmark symptom of endometriosis, often severe and debilitating. - It results from the **inflammation, adhesions, and nerve sensitization** caused by ectopic endometrial tissue growing outside the uterus. *Dyspareunia* - **Dyspareunia**, or **painful intercourse**, is frequently experienced by women with endometriosis. - This symptom typically occurs when endometrial implants are located on the **uterosacral ligaments, posterior cul-de-sac, or rectovaginal septum**, leading to irritation during deep penetration.
Question 70: USG of 28 weeks gestation showing oligohydramnios is likely to be due to?
- A. Renal pathway obstruction (Correct Answer)
- B. Neuromuscular disorder
- C. Gastrointestinal obstruction
- D. Anencephaly
Explanation: ***Renal pathway obstruction*** - **Oligohydramnios** (low amniotic fluid) in the late second or third trimester is often caused by conditions that impair fetal urine production or outflow. - **Renal pathway obstruction** (e.g., posterior urethral valves, bilateral renal agenesis) prevents the fetus from producing or excreting sufficient urine, a primary source of amniotic fluid. *Gastrointestinal obstruction* - **Gastrointestinal obstruction** is more commonly associated with **polyhydramnios** because it impairs the fetal swallowing of amniotic fluid. - Inability to swallow leads to an *accumulation* of amniotic fluid, not a reduction. *Anencephaly* - **Anencephaly** is typically associated with **polyhydramnios** due to impaired swallowing of amniotic fluid. - The exposed brain tissue can also lead to increased fluid transudation. *Neuromuscular disorder* - **Neuromuscular disorders** can cause **polyhydramnios** if they lead to impaired fetal swallowing due to muscle weakness. - If a neuromuscular disorder affects the renal system, it could potentially cause oligohydramnios, but it is not the primary cause of oligohydramnios itself.