Which of the following is not a clinical feature of Bronchiectasis?
Extraintestinal manifestations of Inflammatory bowel disease include all of the following, Except:
Which of the following is NOT an indication for a liver biopsy?
Which of the following is a common finding in patients with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH)?
Which of the following conditions is associated with megaloblastic anemia?
In inflammatory myopathy, which group of muscles is not affected
Which of the following is a feature of tumor lysis syndrome?
In which condition is the Albumin to Globulin (A:G) ratio maintained?
A 68-year-old patient presents with sudden onset of right-sided weakness and slurred speech. The symptoms completely resolve within 30 minutes with no residual neurological deficits. This clinical presentation is most consistent with:
Deep vein thrombosis most commonly occurs at which site?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 91: Which of the following is not a clinical feature of Bronchiectasis?
- A. Hemoptysis
- B. Chest pain
- C. Night sweats (Correct Answer)
- D. Productive cough
Explanation: ***Night sweats*** - While **night sweats** can be present in chronic infections, they are not considered a primary or defining clinical feature directly associated with the pathology of bronchiectasis itself. - They are more commonly linked with systemic conditions like **tuberculosis** or malignancy, which would require alternative diagnostic pathways. *Hemoptysis* - **Hemoptysis** (coughing up blood) is a common and often alarming symptom of bronchiectasis due to the inflammation and damage to the bronchial walls and underlying vasculature [1]. - Blood vessels in damaged airways are prone to rupture, leading to bleeding, which can range from blood-streaked sputum to massive hemorrhage [1]. *Chest pain* - **Chest pain** can occur in bronchiectasis, often related to the chronic cough, pleural inflammation, or musculoskeletal strain from persistent coughing. - It can also be a symptom if there's an associated infection or inflammation extending to the pleura. *Productive cough* - A **chronic productive cough** with significant amounts of purulent sputum is the hallmark symptom of bronchiectasis [1]. - This is due to the impaired mucociliary clearance and chronic infection within the dilated, damaged airways .
Question 92: Extraintestinal manifestations of Inflammatory bowel disease include all of the following, Except:
- A. Sclerosing cholangitis
- B. Skin nodules
- C. Osteoarthritis (Correct Answer)
- D. Uveitis
Explanation: ***Osteoarthritis*** - **Osteoarthritis** is a **degenerative joint disease** caused by wear and tear on cartilage, and it is **not** an extraintestinal manifestation of IBD [3]. - While patients with IBD can develop osteoarthritis, it does not share the same **pathophysiological link** to the inflammatory process of IBD as other extraintestinal manifestations. *Uveitis* - **Uveitis** is an inflammation of the **uvea** (middle layer of the eye) and is a well-recognized ocular extraintestinal manifestation of IBD [2]. - It can cause eye pain, redness, and blurred vision, and its severity may correlate with IBD disease activity. *Sclerosing cholangitis* - **Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)** is a chronic cholestatic liver disease characterized by inflammation and fibrosis of the **bile ducts**, and it is strongly associated with **ulcerative colitis** [1]. - It often progresses to **cirrhosis** and liver failure and is a significant extraintestinal manifestation. *Skin nodules* - **Erythema nodosum** and **pyoderma gangrenosum** are common cutaneous extraintestinal manifestations of IBD, often presenting as **painful red nodules** or ulcers on the skin [2]. - These skin conditions are thought to be immune-mediated and often parallel the activity of the underlying inflammatory bowel disease.
Question 93: Which of the following is NOT an indication for a liver biopsy?
- A. Amoebic hepatitis (Correct Answer)
- B. Chronic hepatitis B and C
- C. Autoimmune hepatitis
- D. Wilson's disease
Explanation: ***Amoebic hepatitis*** - Liver biopsy is **not routinely indicated** for amoebic hepatitis as diagnosis is typically made through clinical history and serological tests. - The condition is usually managed with **medications** rather than requiring invasive procedures like a biopsy. *Wilson's disease* - Liver biopsy is important for assessing **copper accumulation** in Wilson's disease, establishing a diagnosis. - It may also provide information regarding the extent of **hepatocellular damage**. *Chronic hepatitis B and C* - In chronic hepatitis B and C, liver biopsy is crucial to evaluate the **degree of fibrosis** and hepatic inflammation. - It assists in determining the need for **antiviral therapy** and prognostication. *Autoimmune hepatitis* - Liver biopsy helps confirm the diagnosis of autoimmune hepatitis and assess the **severity of liver damage**. [1] - It also aids in monitoring the response to **immunosuppressive therapy**. [1] **Note on technique:** Percutaneous liver biopsy requires specific conditions for safety, such as cooperative patients and adequate coagulation profiles. [2]
Question 94: Which of the following is a common finding in patients with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH)?
- A. Ascites
- B. Normal BP (Correct Answer)
- C. Generalized edema
- D. Dry mucous membrane
Explanation: ***Normal BP*** - In SIADH, patients are typically **euvolemic** due to the primary issue being water retention rather than salt retention or frank dehydration [2]. - While hyponatremia occurs, the body's compensatory mechanisms usually prevent significant changes in blood pressure, maintaining it within the **normal range**. *Generalized edema* - Generalized edema is uncommon in SIADH because the excessive water retention is initially within the **intravascular compartment**, and the body attempts to excrete the additional volume of water [1]. - Although the patient is effectively retaining water, the osmolality is low, leading to fluid shifts rather than overt edema unless severe, protracted fluid overload occurs. *Ascites* - **Ascites**, which is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, is not a characteristic feature of SIADH [2]. - Ascites is more commonly associated with conditions like **liver cirrhosis**, heart failure, or malignancy. *Dry mucous membrane* - **Dry mucous membranes** are a sign of dehydration and fluid volume deficit. - In contrast, SIADH involves **fluid overload** (though euvolemic), making dry mucous membranes an unlikely finding [2].
Question 95: Which of the following conditions is associated with megaloblastic anemia?
- A. Pernicious anemia (Correct Answer)
- B. Iron deficiency anemia
- C. Intestinal lymphatic ectasia
- D. Chronic kidney disease
Explanation: a and b - Megaloblastic anemia is commonly associated with **vitamin B12** [1] and **folate deficiencies** [2], which can occur due to various causes. - Conditions leading to malabsorption (such as those related to the gastrointestinal tract) contribute significantly to megaloblastic anemia [1, 2]. *ileal resection* - Ileal resection can indeed lead to **malabsorption** of vitamin B12 [1], particularly if the distal ileum is removed. - However, it is important to note that megaloblastic anemia specifically reflects a broader range of potential deficiencies, thus it is not an exclusive answer. *Crohn's disease* - Crohn's disease can cause **malabsorption** and result in vitamin B12 deficiency but is not a direct cause of megaloblastic anemia on its own. - The anemia may occur due to complications like **ileo-pouch anastomosis** rather than the disease itself. *Intestinal lymphatic ectasia* - This condition leads to **protein-losing enteropathy**, potentially causing deficiencies but not specifically leading to megaloblastic anemia. - The anemia associated with this condition is typically due to **hypoalbuminemia** and not a result of any vitamin deficiency directly.
Question 96: In inflammatory myopathy, which group of muscles is not affected
- A. Facial
- B. Proximal muscles of limb
- C. Ocular (Correct Answer)
- D. Distal muscles of limb
Explanation: ***Ocular*** - The **extraocular muscles** responsible for eye movement are generally spared in typical inflammatory myopathies, distinguishing them from other neuromuscular disorders. - Inflammatory myopathies primarily affect **skeletal muscles**, but **ocular muscles** have unique immunological and physiological properties that often protect them. *Facial* - While less commonly affected early in the disease, some inflammatory myopathies, particularly **dermatomyositis**, can eventually involve **facial muscles**, leading to weakness. - Involvement of **facial muscles** can manifest as difficulty with smiling, whistling, or closing the eyelids. *Proximal muscles of limb* - Inflammatory myopathies characteristically cause **proximal muscle weakness**, affecting muscles of the **shoulders, hips, and thighs** [1]. - This weakness often presents as difficulty climbing stairs, getting up from a chair, or lifting objects overhead [1]. *Distal muscles of limb* - While less common than proximal involvement, **distal muscle weakness** (affecting hands and feet) can occur in some subsets of inflammatory myopathies, such as **inclusion body myositis**. - This can lead to difficulties with fine motor tasks or foot drop.
Question 97: Which of the following is a feature of tumor lysis syndrome?
- A. Metabolic alkalosis (a rise in blood pH)
- B. Hypokalemia (a decrease in blood potassium levels)
- C. Hypocalcemia (a decrease in blood calcium levels) (Correct Answer)
- D. Hypophosphatemia (a decrease in blood phosphate levels)
Explanation: ***Hypocalcemia (a decrease in blood calcium levels)*** - **Hypocalcemia** in tumor lysis syndrome results from the precipitation of calcium with excessive phosphate released from lysed tumor cells. - The elevated phosphate levels bind to calcium, forming **calcium phosphate crystals** that can deposit in tissues, further lowering serum calcium. *Metabolic alkalosis (a rise in blood pH)* - Tumor lysis syndrome typically leads to **metabolic acidosis**, not alkalosis, due to the release of acidic intracellular metabolites like uric acid and phosphate. - The accumulation of these acidic compounds overwhelms the body's buffering systems, decreasing blood pH. *Hypokalemia (a decrease in blood potassium levels)* - Tumor lysis syndrome is characterized by **hyperkalemia**, an increase in blood potassium, as potassium is a major intracellular cation released during cell lysis. - The rapid breakdown of numerous tumor cells dumps vast amounts of intracellular potassium into the bloodstream. *Hypophosphatemia (a decrease in blood phosphate levels)* - Tumor lysis syndrome causes **hyperphosphatemia**, an elevation in blood phosphate levels, because phosphate is abundantly present within tumor cells and is released upon their destruction. - This excessive release of intracellular phosphate is a hallmark biochemical feature of the syndrome.
Question 98: In which condition is the Albumin to Globulin (A:G) ratio maintained?
- A. Nephritic syndrome (Correct Answer)
- B. Cirrhosis
- C. Protein losing enteropathy
- D. Multiple myeloma
Explanation: ***Nephritic syndrome*** - In nephritic syndrome, the **glomerular filtration is often preserved**, allowing for the maintenance of A:G ratio despite the presence of hematuria and proteinuria [1]. - The condition typically leads to a **moderate degree of proteinuria**, retaining a relatively normal serum albumin level [1]. *Multiple myeloma* - In multiple myeloma, there is often a **high level of paraproteins** leading to a significant drop in albumin, affecting the A:G ratio. - Patients frequently exhibit **renal impairment**, resulting in a disrupted A:G ratio due to increased urinary protein loss. *Protein losing enteropathy* - This condition causes **loss of proteins** like albumin through the gastrointestinal tract, leading to **hypoalbuminemia** and altered A:G ratio. - It is characterized by **diarrhea** and fluid accumulation, further impacting the protein status in circulation. *Cirrhosis* - Cirrhosis leads to **decreased albumin synthesis**, resulting in a low serum albumin and an altered A:G ratio. - The condition is associated with **portal hypertension** and ascites, complicating the biochemical status.
Question 99: A 68-year-old patient presents with sudden onset of right-sided weakness and slurred speech. The symptoms completely resolve within 30 minutes with no residual neurological deficits. This clinical presentation is most consistent with:
- A. Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA) (Correct Answer)
- B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
- C. Intracerebral hemorrhage
- D. Ischemic stroke
Explanation: ***Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)*** - A TIA is characterized by **transient neurological dysfunction caused by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischemia**, without acute infarction [1]. - The key diagnostic feature here is the **complete resolution of symptoms within a short period** (30 minutes) with no residual deficits, fitting the definition of TIA [1]. *Subarachnoid hemorrhage* - This typically presents with a **sudden, severe headache** (often described as "thunderclap"), stiff neck, and altered mental status. - While it can cause sudden neurological deficits, these symptoms usually **do not resolve completely within minutes**, and often lead to persistent deficits or life-threatening complications. *Intracerebral hemorrhage* - An intracerebral hemorrhage involves **bleeding directly into the brain tissue**, leading to sudden onset of neurological deficits that **progress over time** [2]. - The symptoms are generally **severe and persistent**, and would not resolve completely within 30 minutes. *Ischemic stroke* - An ischemic stroke is caused by a **blockage of blood flow to the brain**, resulting in brain tissue damage (infarction) and persistent neurological deficits [2]. - While initial symptoms can be similar to a TIA [3], an ischemic stroke by definition involves **permanent damage and lasting deficits**, unlike what is described in the patient's presentation.
Question 100: Deep vein thrombosis most commonly occurs at which site?
- A. Femoral vein (Correct Answer)
- B. Subclavian vein
- C. External jugular vein
- D. Internal jugular vein
Explanation: ***Femoral vein*** - The **femoral vein**, along with the **popliteal** and **iliac veins**, are the most common sites for **deep vein thrombosis (DVT)** in the lower extremities [1]. - Due to their size and the dynamics of blood flow in these regions, they are prone to clot formation, especially in the presence of **Virchow's triad**. *Subclavian vein* - While DVT can occur in the subclavian vein (an **upper extremity DVT**), it is less common than in the lower extremities [1]. - Upper extremity DVTs are often associated with **central venous catheters** or **thoracic outlet syndrome**. *External jugular vein* - **External jugular vein thrombosis** is rare and usually associated with local trauma, infection, or central line placement, not typically primary DVT [1]. - It is a superficial vein and not considered a common site for typical deep vein thrombosis. *Internal jugular vein* - **Internal jugular vein thrombosis** is also uncommon as a primary DVT and often secondary to neck infections, malignancies, or indwelling catheters [1]. - Like the subclavian vein, it's considered an upper extremity DVT site, but less frequent than lower extremity sites.