Biochemistry
1 questionsWhich vitamin deficiency is most commonly associated with chronic alcohol consumption and may require supplementation in alcohol use disorders?
NEET-PG 2012 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 901: Which vitamin deficiency is most commonly associated with chronic alcohol consumption and may require supplementation in alcohol use disorders?
- A. Pyridoxine
- B. Thiamine (Correct Answer)
- C. Riboflavin
- D. Niacin
Explanation: ***Thiamine*** - **Thiamine** (Vitamin B1) deficiency is extremely common in chronic alcoholics due to **poor dietary intake**, impaired absorption, and increased excretion. - Deficiency can lead to serious neurological complications like **Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome**, characterized by confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. *Pyridoxine* - **Pyridoxine** (Vitamin B6) deficiency can occur in alcoholics, but it is less common and less clinically significant than thiamine deficiency. - While it can manifest as peripheral neuropathy or **sideroblastic anemia**, it is not the most common or critical deficiency in this population. *Riboflavin* - **Riboflavin** (Vitamin B2) deficiency can also be seen in chronic alcoholics due to poor nutrition. - Symptoms like **cheilosis** and **angular stomatitis** are mild compared to the severe neurological consequences of thiamine deficiency. *Niacin* - **Niacin** (Vitamin B3) deficiency, known as **pellagra**, is rare in developed countries but can occur in severe malnutrition, including in some alcoholics. - Pellagra presents with the "3 Ds": **dermatitis**, **diarrhea**, and **dementia**, but it is generally less prevalent than thiamine deficiency in alcohol use disorders.
Pediatrics
1 questionsUpper segment to lower segment ratio in a 3-year-old child is:
NEET-PG 2012 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 901: Upper segment to lower segment ratio in a 3-year-old child is:
- A. 1.2:1
- B. 1.3:1 (Correct Answer)
- C. 1.4:1
- D. 1.6:1
Explanation: ***1.3:1*** - At birth, the upper segment to lower segment ratio is around **1.7:1**, indicating proportionally longer trunks. - By the age of **3 years**, this ratio typically decreases to approximately **1.3:1** as the lower limbs grow more rapidly. *1.2:1* - This ratio is typically observed in **older children** or young adults, as lower limb growth catches up further. - A ratio of 1.2:1 would suggest more **proportional body segments** than expected for a 3-year-old child. *1.4:1* - This ratio is closer to that of a **younger infant** or toddler, as the lower segments are still relatively shorter. - A 3-year-old would generally have experienced more **lower limb growth**, reducing this ratio further. *1.6:1* - This ratio is characteristic of a **newborn or very young infant**, where the upper body and head are significantly larger relative to the legs. - It would be **abnormal** for a 3-year-old to still have such a high ratio, indicating a disproportional growth pattern.
Pharmacology
4 questionsMost commonly abused opioid -
Which drug is commonly used for outpatient department (OPD) analgesia?
All of the following are correct about ketamine, EXCEPT which of the following?
What is the maximum cumulative dose of isotretinoin for acne treatment?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 901: Most commonly abused opioid -
- A. Morphine
- B. Diacetylmorphine (Correct Answer)
- C. Oxycodone
- D. Buprenorphine
Explanation: ***Diacetylmorphine*** - **Diacetylmorphine**, commonly known as **heroin**, is synthetically derived from **morphine** but is significantly more potent and lipid-soluble, allowing it to cross the **blood-brain barrier** rapidly [1, 3]. - Its rapid onset of action and intense euphoric effects contribute to its high potential for **abuse** and addiction, making it one of the most commonly abused opioids globally, particularly through intravenous injection [1]. *Morphine* - While **morphine** is a potent opioid and has a high potential for abuse, it is often prescribed in clinical settings for severe pain. - Its slower onset and less intense "rush" compared to **heroin** make it less frequently the **primary opioid of abuse** in illicit street drug markets [1]. *Oxycodone* - **Oxycodone** is a highly abused prescription opioid, especially in the form of controlled-release formulations like **OxyContin**, but its abuse is primarily linked to prescription drug diversion rather than being the most common illicitly manufactured opioid of abuse. - While it contributes significantly to the opioid crisis, **heroin** (diacetylmorphine) remains the most commonly abused opioid in the illicit market due to its widespread availability and potency [1]. *Buprenorphine* - **Buprenorphine** is a **partial opioid agonist** used in the treatment of opioid dependence (opioid replacement therapy) due to its ceiling effect on respiratory depression and ability to block the effects of other opioids. - Although it can be abused, particularly in combination with naloxone (Suboxone) via intravenous injection, its primary role is in **medication-assisted treatment**, making it less commonly abused as a standalone illicit opioid compared to **heroin**.
Question 902: Which drug is commonly used for outpatient department (OPD) analgesia?
- A. Diclofenac
- B. Ibuprofen
- C. Paracetamol (Correct Answer)
- D. Tramadol
Explanation: ***Paracetamol*** - It is a widely used and generally **safe analgesic** and antipyretic often prescribed for mild to moderate pain in an outpatient setting. - Its favorable side effect profile and availability as an **over-the-counter (OTC)** medication make it a first-choice drug for many common pain conditions. *Diclofenac* - While it is an effective NSAID used for pain and inflammation, its use can be associated with **gastrointestinal side effects** like ulcers and bleeding, as well as cardiovascular risks. - It is often reserved for more significant inflammatory pain or when other analgesics are insufficient, and may require more careful monitoring in an outpatient setting. *Ibuprofen* - Similar to diclofenac, Ibuprofen is an **NSAID** which is effective for pain and inflammation. However, it also carries risks of **gastrointestinal irritation** and renal side effects, especially with prolonged use or in certain patient populations. - While available OTC, its use for routine outpatient analgesia may be less preferred than paracetamol in some cases due to its GI and renal side effect profile. *Tramadol* - Tramadol is a **central acting opioid analgesic** with a higher potential for side effects such as nausea, dizziness, constipation, and the risk of dependence or abuse. - It is typically reserved for moderate to severe pain that is not adequately managed by non-opioid analgesics, and its prescription often involves more stringent monitoring than paracetamol.
Question 903: All of the following are correct about ketamine, EXCEPT which of the following?
- A. It increases arterial blood pressure
- B. It inhibits polysynaptic reflexes in the spinal cord
- C. It functionally "dissociates" the thalamus
- D. It is a potent bronchoconstrictor (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***It is a potent bronchoconstrictor*** - **Ketamine** is known for its **bronchodilatory properties**, making it a suitable anesthetic for patients with asthma or reactive airway disease, rather than a bronchoconstrictor [1]. - Its ability to relax bronchial smooth muscle is mediated, in part, by its indirect sympathetic stimulation and direct effects on airways. *It functionally "dissociates" the thalamus* - Ketamine's mechanism of action involves **N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonism**, which leads to a "dissociative" state [2]. - This results in a functional separation between the **thalamoneocortical** and **limbic systems**, explaining its unique anesthetic effects. *It increases arterial blood pressure* - Ketamine typically causes an **increase in heart rate** and **arterial blood pressure** due to its sympathomimetic effects. - This is achieved through the release of **endogenous catecholamines**, which stimulate the cardiovascular system. *It inhibits polysynaptic reflexes in the spinal cord* - Ketamine acts as a powerful **analgesic** by inhibiting ascending **polysynaptic reflexes** in the spinal cord. - This contributes to its ability to provide profound **pain relief** separate from its anesthetic effects [2].
Question 904: What is the maximum cumulative dose of isotretinoin for acne treatment?
- A. 30-60 mg/kg
- B. 60-90 mg/kg
- C. 90-120 mg/kg
- D. 120-150 mg/kg (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***120-150 mg/kg*** - The goal of **isotretinoin cumulative dosing** is to achieve long-term remission and reduce the risk of relapse. - A cumulative dose in the range of **120-150 mg/kg** has been shown to optimize treatment outcomes for severe or recalcitrant acne. *30-60 mg/kg* - This range is typically considered too low to achieve the optimal **cumulative dose** for sustained remission in severe acne. - Doses within this range might be used in some cases for milder forms of acne or in patients with significant side effects, but not as the standard maximum. *60-90 mg/kg* - While this is closer to an effective cumulative dose, it still often falls short of the recommended range for maximizing the long-term efficacy and reducing relapse rates in patients with severe forms of acne. - Studies suggest that higher cumulative doses correlate with better treatment success and fewer recurrences. *90-120 mg/kg* - This range is often considered a minimal target for a **cumulative dose**, especially at the higher end of the range (120 mg/kg). - While effective for many patients, aiming for the upper end (120-150 mg/kg) often provides a more robust and durable response, particularly in more severe or nodular acne.
Psychiatry
2 questionsWhich of the following is a first-line treatment for bipolar affective (manic-depressive) disorder:
What term describes repetitive, intrusive thoughts that cause significant distress or anxiety?
NEET-PG 2012 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 901: Which of the following is a first-line treatment for bipolar affective (manic-depressive) disorder:
- A. Chlorpromazine
- B. Haloperidol
- C. Diazepam
- D. Lithium carbonate (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Lithium carbonate** - **Lithium** is a well-established and highly effective **mood stabilizer**, considered a first-line treatment for managing both **manic** and **depressive episodes** in bipolar disorder. - It helps prevent recurrent episodes and reduces the severity of mood swings, acting as a prophylactic agent. *Chlorpromazine* - **Chlorpromazine** is a **first-generation antipsychotic** that is primarily used to treat **schizophrenia** and other psychotic disorders. - While it can be used acutely to manage severe manic agitation, it is not a first-line agent for the long-term mood stabilization characteristic of bipolar disorder. *Haloperidol* - **Haloperidol** is another **first-generation antipsychotic** often used for acute treatment of **psychotic symptoms** or severe agitation, including in mania. - It is not a primary long-term mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder due to its side effect profile and lack of efficacy in preventing future mood episodes compared to lithium. *Diazepam* - **Diazepam** is a **benzodiazepine** primarily used for treating **anxiety**, muscle spasms, and acute seizures. - While it can help manage acute agitation and insomnia during a manic episode, it does not have mood-stabilizing properties and is not a long-term treatment for bipolar disorder.
Question 902: What term describes repetitive, intrusive thoughts that cause significant distress or anxiety?
- A. Phobia
- B. Obsession (Correct Answer)
- C. Compulsion
- D. Anxiety
Explanation: ***Obsession*** - An **obsession** is defined by the presence of **recurrent and persistent thoughts, urges, or images** that are experienced as intrusive and unwanted, causing significant anxiety or distress. - These thoughts are often recognized as products of one's own mind, and individuals typically attempt to ignore, suppress, or neutralize them. *Phobia* - A **phobia** is an intense, irrational fear of a specific object or situation that poses little or no actual danger. - Unlike obsessions, phobias are typically related to external stimuli and do not primarily involve intrusive thoughts. *Compulsion* - A **compulsion** is a repetitive behavior (e.g., hand washing, checking) or mental act (e.g., praying, counting) that an individual feels driven to perform in response to an obsession. - Compulsions are often aimed at preventing or reducing anxiety or distress, or preventing some dreaded event or situation. *Anxiety* - **Anxiety** is a general term for a feeling of worry, nervousness, or unease, typically about an event or something with an uncertain outcome. - While obsessions cause anxiety, "anxiety" itself is a broad emotional state, not specifically the intrusive thoughts described.
Radiology
2 questionsRim sign in IVP is seen in
Which of the following techniques uses piezoelectric crystals?
NEET-PG 2012 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 901: Rim sign in IVP is seen in
- A. Hydronephrosis (Correct Answer)
- B. Chronic Pyelonephritis
- C. Renal Cell Carcinoma
- D. Polycystic Kidney Disease
Explanation: ***Hydronephrosis*** - The **rim sign** in IVP (Intravenous Pyelography) refers to the opacification of the renal parenchyma surrounding a dilated pelvicalyceal system, forming a "rim" of contrast. - This sign is characteristic of acute obstruction leading to **hydronephrosis**, where the contrast accumulates in the compressed renal tissue and then slowly excretes into the dilated collecting system, outlining it. *Chronic Pyelonephritis* - Characterized by **focal cortical thinning**, scarring, and clubbing of the calyces, not a rim sign. - The kidney may appear small and irregularly outlined on IVP due to **parenchymal loss**. *Renal Cell Carcinoma* - Often presents as a **mass lesion** that distorts the collecting system, but typically does not cause a rim sign. - May show vascularity on imaging and can cause direct invasion or displacement of renal structures. *Polycystic Kidney Disease* - Involves multiple **cysts** of varying sizes throughout both kidneys, leading to significant renal enlargement and distortion of the collecting system. - The appearance is typically described as a "Swiss cheese" or "moth-eaten" pattern due to the numerous cysts, not a rim sign.
Question 902: Which of the following techniques uses piezoelectric crystals?
- A. Ultrasonography (Correct Answer)
- B. NMR imaging
- C. X-ray diffraction
- D. Xeroradiography
Explanation: ***Ultrasonography*** - **Piezoelectric crystals** are the core component of **ultrasound transducers**, which generate and detect ultrasonic waves. - These crystals convert electrical energy into mechanical vibrations (sound waves) and vice-versa, allowing for the creation of images. *NMR imaging* - **NMR imaging** (Nuclear Magnetic Resonance, now commonly known as **MRI**) uses strong magnetic fields and **radiofrequency pulses** to generate images. - It relies on the magnetic properties of atomic nuclei, particularly hydrogen, rather than piezoelectric effects. *X-ray diffraction* - **X-ray diffraction** is a technique used to study the atomic and molecular structure of materials, and it involves the interaction of **X-rays** with the electron clouds of atoms. - It does not involve piezoelectric crystals; instead, it uses an X-ray source and a detector to measure diffracted X-rays. *Xeroradiography* - **Xeroradiography** is an older imaging technique that used **xerographic plates** coated with a photoconductive material (like selenium) to capture X-ray images. - It relies on electrostatic charges and dry development rather than piezoelectric crystals to produce images.