NEET-PG 2012 Practice Questions

Q: Selenium deficiency is seen in -

Keshan disease. ***Keshan disease*** - **Keshan disease** is a form of **cardiomyopathy** caused by **selenium deficiency**, particularly prevalent in regions with selenium-poor soil. - It presents with **heart failure**, arrhythmias, and cardiac enlargement. *Wilson disease* - **Wilson disease** is a disorder of **copper metabolism**, leading to excessive copper accumulation in organs, primarily the liver and brain. - It is not related to selenium deficiency. *Acrodermatitis enteropathica* - **Acrodermatitis enteropathica** is a genetic disorder of **zinc deficiency**, characterized by dermatitis, diarrhea, and alopecia. - It does not involve selenium deficiency. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because Keshan disease is directly linked to selenium deficiency.

Q: Which cancer type has the most effective screening procedure?

Cervical Cancer. ***Cervical Cancer*** - **Pap smear and HPV testing** represent the most effective cancer screening program, with proven reduction of **>70% in cervical cancer incidence and mortality**. - Screening detects **pre-cancerous lesions (CIN)** during the long latent period, allowing for effective intervention before cancer develops. - Well-established guidelines with high sensitivity, specificity, and cost-effectiveness make it a **public health success story**. - Particularly relevant in Indian context where cervical cancer burden is high and screening programs are being expanded. *Colon Cancer* - **Colonoscopy** and **fecal occult blood testing (FOBT)** are highly effective, allowing direct visualization and removal of precancerous polyps. - While very effective with proven mortality reduction, screening uptake is lower and the procedure is more invasive than cervical cancer screening. - Effectiveness is comparable but cervical cancer screening has achieved greater population-level impact historically. *Prostate Cancer* - Screening with **PSA (prostate-specific antigen) testing** and **digital rectal exam (DRE)** is controversial due to potential for **overdiagnosis and overtreatment** of indolent cancers. - Impact on overall mortality reduction is debated, and it doesn't prevent cancer through detection of precancerous lesions like cervical/colon cancer screening. *Gastric Cancer* - **Gastric cancer screening** is not routinely recommended in most countries including India due to lower prevalence and lack of a highly effective, non-invasive screening method. - **Endoscopy** can detect gastric cancer but is typically performed in symptomatic individuals or high-risk populations (e.g., Japan, Korea), not as a general population screening tool.

Q: Which vaccine is used to prevent cholera?

WC-rBS. ***WC-rBS*** * **WC-rBS** stands for **whole-cell, recombinant B subunit** vaccine, also known as **Dukoral**. * It is an **oral inactivated vaccine** containing killed *Vibrio cholerae* O1 bacteria and the recombinant B subunit of the cholera toxin, providing immunity against cholera. * **WC-rBS is the WHO-prequalified cholera vaccine** widely used in India and recommended for travellers and in epidemic settings. * It provides protection against both O1 and O139 serogroups and offers some cross-protection against ETEC (enterotoxigenic *E. coli*). *CVD 103-HgR* * **CVD 103-HgR** (commercially known as **Vaxchora**) is an **oral live-attenuated cholera vaccine** approved by the FDA. * It is a genetically modified *Vibrio cholerae* O1 Inaba strain with deleted cholera toxin genes. * While this is also a cholera vaccine, **it is primarily used in the United States** and is not the standard vaccine used in India or recommended by WHO for mass vaccination campaigns. * In the Indian context and for NEET-PG examinations, **WC-rBS (Dukoral) is the recognized cholera vaccine**. *Ty21a* * **Ty21a** is an **oral live-attenuated vaccine** used to prevent **typhoid fever**. * It is specifically designed to target *Salmonella Typhi* bacteria, not *Vibrio cholerae*. *None of the options* * This option is incorrect because WC-rBS is the well-established and WHO-recommended vaccine for the prevention of cholera in the Indian context.

Q: What is the concentration of type 3 virus in the trivalent oral polio vaccine?

600,000 TCID 50. ***600,000 TCID 50*** - The **trivalent oral polio vaccine (tOPV)** traditionally contained specific concentrations of each serotype: **type 1 (1,000,000 TCID50/dose)**, **type 2 (100,000 TCID50/dose)**, and **type 3 (600,000 TCID50/dose)**. - Type 3 poliovirus requires a **higher concentration (600,000 TCID50)** compared to type 2 to achieve adequate immunogenicity and protection. - The **World Health Organization (WHO)** established these specific formulations for tOPV to ensure optimal efficacy and safety for each serotype. *100,000 TCID 50* - This is the concentration of **type 2 poliovirus** in tOPV, not type 3. - Due to the **global eradication of wild poliovirus type 2** by 2015, tOPV was replaced with bivalent OPV (bOPV) containing only types 1 and 3 in routine immunization programs. *400,000 TCID 50* - This concentration does not correspond to any standard poliovirus serotype in the traditional trivalent oral polio vaccine. - This value falls between type 2 (100,000) and type 3 (600,000) concentrations but is not used. *300,000 TCID 50* - This concentration is not the standard for any poliovirus serotype in the traditional trivalent oral polio vaccine. - Each serotype has a **distinct, empirically determined concentration** to achieve optimal immunity while minimizing adverse effects.

Q: Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with delayed dentition?

Cystic fibrosis. ***Cystic fibrosis*** - **Cystic fibrosis** primarily affects exocrine glands, leading to issues in the respiratory and digestive systems, and does not directly impact tooth development or eruption timing. - While patients with cystic fibrosis may have other oral health concerns due to medications or nutritional deficiencies, **delayed dentition** is not a characteristic feature of the condition itself. *Down syndrome* - Children with **Down syndrome** often experience generalized developmental delays, including delayed eruption of both primary and permanent teeth. - Other common oral manifestations in Down syndrome include **microdontia**, **taurodontism**, and a higher incidence of **periodontal disease**. *Congenital hypothyroidism* - **Congenital hypothyroidism** is associated with significant developmental delays, including skeletal maturation and delayed tooth eruption. - The reduced metabolic rate due to thyroid hormone deficiency impacts bone and tooth development. *Rickets* - **Rickets**, caused by a deficiency in vitamin D, calcium, or phosphate, leads to inadequate mineralization of bone and cartilage, which can affect tooth development and eruption. - Oral manifestations of rickets include **delayed tooth eruption**, enamel hypoplasia, and a higher susceptibility to dental caries.

Q: What is the first permanent tooth to erupt?

First molar. ***First molar*** - The **first molars** are typically the first permanent teeth to erupt, usually around **6 years of age**. - They erupt distal to the primary second molars and are not preceded by primary teeth, making them crucial for establishing the **occlusion**. *First premolar* - **First premolars** typically erupt later, between **10 and 11 years of age**, replacing the primary first molars. - Their eruption is part of the **exchange of primary teeth** for permanent successors. *Second premolar* - The **second premolars** erupt even later, usually between **11 and 12 years of age**, replacing the primary second molars. - They are also involved in the **replacement of primary teeth**, not the initial permanent eruption. *Second molar* - **Second molars** erupt much later than the first molars, typically between **11 and 13 years of age**, distal to the first molars. - They are part of the **later stages of permanent dentition development**.

Q: What is the most common complication of pars planitis?

Cataract (clouding of the lens). **Cataract (clouding of the lens)** - **Cataract formation** is the most common ocular complication in patients with pars planitis, often due to chronic inflammation or steroid use. - The inflammation can disrupt lens metabolism, leading to **opacification** over time. *Retinal detachment (separation of retina)* - While possible, **retinal detachment** is a less common complication of pars planitis compared to cataract formation. - It can occur in severe cases, often due to vitreous traction on fragile peripheral retina or tears associated with **snowbanking**. *Cystoid macular edema (swelling of central retina)* - **Cystoid macular edema (CME)** is a significant cause of vision loss in pars planitis but is not the most frequent complication overall. - It results from the inflammatory compromise of the blood-retinal barrier, leading to fluid accumulation in the **macula**. *Glaucoma (increased intraocular pressure)* - **Glaucoma** can occur in pars planitis, often secondary to chronic inflammation affecting the **trabecular meshwork** or prolonged steroid use. - However, it is less common than cataracts and CME as a primary complication.

Q: Tardy ulnar nerve palsy is specifically associated with which type of fracture?

Lateral condyle fracture of the humerus. ***Lateral condyle fracture of the humerus*** - This fracture, especially in children, can lead to **cubitus valgus deformity** as a long-term complication if it heals incorrectly. - The resulting **valgus angulation** at the elbow abnormally stretches the ulnar nerve behind the medial epicondyle, causing **tardy ulnar nerve palsy** years after the initial injury. *Medial condyle fracture of the humerus* - While close to the ulnar nerve, medial condyle fractures are more likely to cause **immediate nerve damage** due to direct impingement, rather than delayed or "tardy" palsy from chronic stretching. - Complications typically involve varus deformity, which does not commonly stretch the ulnar nerve in the same manner as valgus. *Fracture of the humeral shaft* - This type of fracture is more commonly associated with **radial nerve injury** (e.g., wrist drop), especially in fractures of the mid-shaft. - It does not typically lead to long-term deformities at the elbow that would cause **delayed ulnar nerve compression**. *Fracture of the radial shaft* - Radial shaft fractures (e.g., Monteggia, Galeazzi) primarily affect the **radial nerve** or the **posterior interosseous nerve**. - They do not directly involve the elbow joint in a manner that would cause **tardy ulnar nerve palsy**.

Q: What is the most common complication of a large Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)?

Congestive Heart Failure (CHF). ***Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)*** - A large PDA results in a significant **left-to-right shunt**, increasing pulmonary blood flow and leading to **pulmonary overcirculation**. [1] - This increased workload on the heart, particularly the left atrium and ventricle, can lead to **ventricular dysfunction** and ultimately CHF. [1] *Eisenmenger syndrome* - While a severe complication of an untreated large PDA, it represents a **late stage** where the left-to-right shunt has reversed due to **pulmonary hypertension**. [1] - It is not the *most common* initial complication, as CHF often develops earlier in the disease progression. *Infective endocarditis* - This is a potential long-term complication of a PDA, especially if untreated, due to the **turbulent blood flow** across the ductus. - However, it is less common than CHF, which results directly from the hemodynamic burden imposed by a large shunt. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Congestive Heart Failure** is indeed a very common and significant complication of a large Patent Ductus Arteriosus.

Question 1

Selenium deficiency is seen in -

Accepted Answer

Keshan disease

Answer

Wilson disease

Answer

Acrodermatitis enteropathica

Answer

None of the options

Question 2

Which cancer type has the most effective screening procedure?

Accepted Answer

Cervical Cancer

Answer

Prostate Cancer

Answer

Colon Cancer

Answer

Gastric Cancer

Question 3

Which vaccine is used to prevent cholera?

Accepted Answer

WC-rBS

Answer

CVD 103-HgR

Answer

Ty21 A

Answer

None of the options

Question 4

What is the concentration of type 3 virus in the trivalent oral polio vaccine?

Accepted Answer

600,000 TCID 50

Answer

400,000 TCID 50

Answer

100,000 TCID 50

Answer

300,000 TCID 50

Question 5

Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with delayed dentition?

Accepted Answer

Cystic fibrosis

Answer

Down syndrome

Answer

Congenital hypothyroidism

Answer

Rickets

Question 6

What is the first permanent tooth to erupt?

Accepted Answer

First molar

Answer

First premolar

Answer

Second premolar

Answer

Second molar

Question 7

What is the most common complication of pars planitis?

Accepted Answer

Cataract (clouding of the lens)

Answer

Retinal detachment (separation of retina)

Answer

Cystoid macular edema (swelling of central retina)

Answer

Glaucoma (increased intraocular pressure)

Question 8

Tardy ulnar nerve palsy is specifically associated with which type of fracture?

Accepted Answer

Lateral condyle fracture of the humerus

Answer

Medial condyle fracture of the humerus

Answer

Fracture of the humeral shaft

Answer

Fracture of the radial shaft

Question 9

What is the most common cerebellar tumor in children?

Accepted Answer

Medulloblastoma

Answer

Ependymoma

Answer

PNET

Answer

Astrocytoma

Question 10

What is the most common complication of a large Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)?

Accepted Answer

Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)

Answer

Eisenmenger syndrome

Answer

Infective endocarditis

Answer

None of the options

NEET-PG 2012

Biochemistry

Community Medicine

Dental

Ophthalmology

Orthopaedics

Pathology

Pediatrics