Anatomy
6 questionsWhich is derived from Wolffian duct?
Which muscle stabilizes the clavicle during movement of the shoulder?
Nutrient artery runs ?
All are derived from ectoderm except for which of the following?
What anatomical structures are involved in the closure of the fossa ovalis?
Coronary sinus develops from?
NEET-PG 2012 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: Which is derived from Wolffian duct?
- A. Appendix of epididymis (Correct Answer)
- B. Appendix of the testis
- C. Uterine structure
- D. Hydatid of Morgagni
Explanation: The **appendix of the epididymis** is a vestigial structure directly derived from the mesonephric (Wolffian) duct in males. It is an embryological remnant of this duct, located at the head of the epididymis. *Appendix of the testis* - The **appendix of the testis** (hydatid of Morgagni) is a remnant of the paramesonephric (Müllerian) duct, not the Wolffian duct. - It is usually found on the upper pole of the testis, typically near the epididymis. *Uterine structure* - **Uterine structures** (uterus, fallopian tubes, and upper vagina) are derived from the paramesonephric (Müllerian) ducts in females [1]. - The Wolffian ducts largely regress in females due to the absence of testosterone. *Hydatid of Morgagni* - The term **hydatid of Morgagni** can refer to the appendix of the testis (Müllerian duct remnant) or, less commonly, to the appendix of the epididymis (Wolffian duct remnant). - However, in common clinical and anatomical usage, it almost exclusively refers to the **appendix of the testis**, which is a Müllerian duct derivative.
Question 52: Which muscle stabilizes the clavicle during movement of the shoulder?
- A. Pectoralis major
- B. Latissimus dorsi
- C. Subclavius (Correct Answer)
- D. Serratus anterior
Explanation: ***Subclavius*** - The **subclavius muscle** originates from the first rib and inserts into the inferior surface of the clavicle, acting to **depress the clavicle** and prevent its displacement, thus enhancing shoulder stability during movement. - It plays a crucial role in protecting the underlying **neurovascular structures** (brachial plexus and subclavian vessels) from external trauma to the shoulder. *Pectoralis major* - This large, fan-shaped muscle primarily functions in **adduction, medial rotation, and flexion of the humerus** at the shoulder joint [1]. - It does not directly stabilize the clavicle but rather acts on the arm. *Latissimus dorsi* - The **latissimus dorsi** is a broad muscle of the back responsible for **extension, adduction, and internal rotation of the humerus** [1]. - Its actions are mainly on the humerus and it does not directly stabilize the clavicle. *Serratus anterior* - The **serratus anterior** muscle primarily **protracts and rotates the scapula**, keeping it pressed against the thoracic wall. - While it's essential for **scapular stability** and overhead arm movements, it does not directly stabilize the clavicle.
Question 53: Nutrient artery runs ?
- A. Away from epiphysis (Correct Answer)
- B. Towards metaphysis
- C. None of the options
- D. Away from metaphysis
Explanation: ***Away from epiphysis*** - The **nutrient artery** runs away from the **dominant (faster-growing) epiphysis** towards the non-dominant end of the bone. - This follows the classic anatomical rule: **"To the elbow, from the knee"** - nutrient arteries point towards the elbow in upper limb bones and away from the knee in lower limb bones. - The **nutrient foramen** is directed obliquely away from the more actively growing end, established during bone development. - Examples: In the humerus, it runs towards the elbow (away from proximal epiphysis); in the femur, it runs away from the knee (away from distal epiphysis). *Towards metaphysis* - While the artery does course towards the metaphyseal region of the slower-growing end, this option is less anatomically precise. - The standard teaching emphasizes the relationship with the **dominant epiphysis** rather than the metaphysis. *Away from metaphysis* - This is **incorrect** - the nutrient artery actually runs **towards** the metaphysis of the non-dominant end. - It runs **away from** the dominant epiphysis, not away from the metaphysis. *None of the options* - This is incorrect as **"Away from epiphysis"** correctly describes the direction of the nutrient artery relative to the dominant growing end.
Question 54: All are derived from ectoderm except for which of the following?
- A. Hair follicles
- B. Nails
- C. Lens of the eye
- D. Adrenal cortex (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Adrenal cortex*** - The adrenal cortex is derived from the **intermediate mesoderm**, specifically from the cells lining the posterior abdominal wall. The cells migrate to develop into the adrenal cortex. - It produces various steroid hormones, including **aldosterone**, **cortisol**, and **androgens**, which regulate diverse bodily functions. *Lens of the eye* - The lens of the eye is derived from the **surface ectoderm**. It forms from an invagination of the surface ectoderm called the lens placode. - Its primary function is to **focus light** onto the retina. *Hair follicles* - Hair follicles develop from the **surface ectoderm** [1]; they are invaginations of the epidermis that extend into the dermis. - They produce hair, which provides **insulation** and **protection** [1]. *Nails* - Nails are also derivatives of the **surface ectoderm**, forming thickened plates on the dorsal surface of the distal phalanges. - They provide **protection** to the fingertips and aid in grasping objects.
Question 55: What anatomical structures are involved in the closure of the fossa ovalis?
- A. Septum primum + Endocardial cushion
- B. Septum primum + Septum secundum (Correct Answer)
- C. Endocardial cushions + Septum secundum
- D. None of the options
Explanation: The septum primum acts as a valve, closing against the septum secundum postnatally due to changes in atrial pressure. This fusion effectively closes the foramen ovale, leading to the formation of the fossa ovalis. The endocardial cushions are important for the formation of the atrial and ventricular septa, as well as the AV valves, but not directly for the closure of the fossa ovalis. The septum primum is directly involved, but its apposition with the endocardial cushions doesn't close the foramen ovale. While both structures contribute to heart development, their direct interaction is not responsible for the closure of the fossa ovalis. The septum secundum forms the muscular rim of the fossa ovalis, and the endocardial cushions are critical for atrial septation, but not the final closure here. This option is incorrect because the specific combination of septum primum and septum secundum is indeed responsible for the closure of the fossa ovalis.
Question 56: Coronary sinus develops from?
- A. Truncus arteriosus
- B. Conus
- C. Sinus venosus (Correct Answer)
- D. AV canal
Explanation: Sinus venosus - The sinus venosus is a primordial cardiac chamber that receives venous blood from the body and placenta in the early embryonic heart. - The left horn of the sinus venosus loses its connection with the systemic venous circulation and becomes the coronary sinus, which drains most of the cardiac veins into the right atrium [1, 4]. Truncus arteriosus - The truncus arteriosus is the embryonic precursor to the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk. - It does not contribute to the development of the coronary sinus. Conus - The conus (or conus cordis) is the outflow portion of the primitive ventricle and differentiates into the outflow tracts of the right (infundibulum) and left (aortic vestibule) ventricles. - It is not involved in the formation of the coronary sinus. AV canal - The atrioventricular (AV) canal connects the primitive atrium and ventricle and is crucial for the formation of the AV valves and septation of the heart chambers. - It does not directly develop into the coronary sinus.
Biochemistry
2 questionsIndole ring is present in?
The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is primarily associated with which biological process?
NEET-PG 2012 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: Indole ring is present in?
- A. Tryptophan (Correct Answer)
- B. Tyrosine
- C. Phenylalanine
- D. Threonine
Explanation: ***Tryptophan*** - Tryptophan is an **aromatic amino acid** characterized by the presence of an **indole ring** in its side chain. - The indole ring consists of a **benzene ring fused to a pyrrole ring**, which is unique to tryptophan among the standard amino acids. *Tyrosine* - Tyrosine is an **aromatic amino acid** containing a **phenol group** (a benzene ring with a hydroxyl group), not an indole ring. - It is derived from phenylalanine and is a precursor for important molecules like **thyroid hormones** and **catecholamines**. *Phenylalanine* - Phenylalanine is an **aromatic amino acid** with a **benzyl group** (a benzene ring attached to a methylene group) in its side chain. - It lacks the distinct heterocyclic indole structure found in tryptophan. *Threonine* - Threonine is an **aliphatic amino acid** with a **hydroxyl group** on its side chain, classifying it as a **polar, uncharged amino acid**. - It does not contain any ring structures, especially not an indole ring.
Question 52: The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is primarily associated with which biological process?
- A. Transcription
- B. Translation (Correct Answer)
- C. DNA replication
- D. RNA splicing
Explanation: ***Translation*** - The **Shine-Dalgarno sequence** is a **ribosome-binding site** in prokaryotic messenger RNA (mRNA) that helps recruit the ribosome to the mRNA to initiate protein synthesis. - Its interaction with the **16S rRNA** of the small ribosomal subunit positions the start codon (AUG) correctly for **translation initiation**. - This sequence is located approximately **8 base pairs upstream** of the start codon in bacterial mRNA. *Transcription* - **Transcription** is the process of synthesizing RNA from a DNA template. - It involves elements like **promoters** and **enhancers**, not the Shine-Dalgarno sequence. *DNA replication* - **DNA replication** is the process by which DNA makes a copy of itself. - This process involves origins of replication, helicases, and DNA polymerases, with no role for the Shine-Dalgarno sequence. *RNA splicing* - **RNA splicing** is a eukaryotic process that removes introns from pre-mRNA. - The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is found in **prokaryotes**, which lack splicing machinery and introns.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsBlastocyst makes contact with endometrium on ?
NEET-PG 2012 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: Blastocyst makes contact with endometrium on ?
- A. < 3 days
- B. 5 - 7 days (Correct Answer)
- C. 8 - 11 days
- D. 15-16 days
Explanation: ***5-7 days*** - The **blastocyst makes initial contact** (apposition) with the **endometrium** around **day 5-6 after fertilization**. - **Implantation**, which includes adhesion and invasion, typically begins around day 6 and is complete by day 10. - This timeframe allows the blastocyst to travel from the fallopian tube to the uterus and for the uterine lining to be optimally prepared. *< 3 days* - Within the first few days after fertilization, the zygote is still undergoing **cleavage** and development into a **morula**, then a young blastocyst, while traveling down the fallopian tube. - It has not yet reached the uterus or developed sufficiently to interact with the endometrium. *8-11 days* - By 8-11 days, the process of implantation is usually **well underway or completed**, with the blastocyst already invading the endometrial wall. - Initial contact and attachment occur prior to this period. *15-16 days* - This timeframe is well beyond the typical window for initial blastocyst contact and implantation. - By 15-16 days post-fertilization, the embryo would be undergoing **gastrulation** and early organogenesis, assuming successful implantation.
Pathology
1 questionsStarry sky appearance is seen in which of the following?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: Starry sky appearance is seen in which of the following?
- A. Burkitt's Lymphoma (Correct Answer)
- B. Diffuse Large B Cell Lymphoma
- C. Anaplastic Large Cell Lymphoma (ALCL)
- D. Follicular Lymphoma
Explanation: ***Burkitts lymphoma*** - The **starry sky appearance** is a characteristic histopathological finding due to interspersed macrophages containing **phagocytosed apoptotic cells** and necrotic debris in Burkitt's lymphoma [1]. - It is associated with **MYC gene translocation** and presents typically in children or young adults, commonly affecting the **jaw or abdomen**. *CIL* - CIL (chronic inflammatory leukocytosis) does not exhibit a **starry sky appearance**; it typically reflects a reactive process without specific histological features. - The histology is more characterized by **increased white blood cell counts** rather than tissue architecture alterations seen in lymphomas. *Diffuse large B cell lymphoma* - While this lymphoma can show **varied morphology**, it does not have a **starry sky appearance** as a defining feature, rather presenting with **large atypical B-cells**. - The histological appearance is generally of a **diffuse infiltrate**, which lacks the classic starry sky histology. *ALCL* - Anaplastic large cell lymphoma (ALCL) is characterized by **large, pleomorphic cells** but does not show a starry sky appearance. - The histological pattern primarily focuses on **large anaplastic lymphoid cells** rather than the scattered macrophages seen in Burkitt's lymphoma. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, p. 606.