Anatomy
2 questionsWhich of the following is NOT a surface marking of the oblique fissure of the lung?
Which of the following is NOT an anterior relation of the right kidney?
NEET-PG 2012 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 261: Which of the following is NOT a surface marking of the oblique fissure of the lung?
- A. 6th costal cartilage
- B. T3
- C. 5th rib
- D. 7th rib (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***7th rib*** - The **oblique fissure** typically extends from the spine at approximately the **T3 vertebral level** anteriorly to the **6th costal cartilage**. [1] - The **7th rib** is generally inferior to the typical anterior termination point of the oblique fissure. [1] *T3* - The **oblique fissure** begins posteriorly at the level of the **spinous process of T3**. [1] - This marks the superior-posterior extent of the fissure on the surface. *5th rib* - The **oblique fissure** crosses the **5th intercostal space** on the lateral chest wall. [1] - This point helps map the fissure's path between its posterior and anterior endpoints. *6th costal cartilage* - The **oblique fissure** terminates anteriorly near the **6th costal cartilage** in the midclavicular line. [1] - This represents the inferior-anterior most point of the fissure on the chest wall.
Question 262: Which of the following is NOT an anterior relation of the right kidney?
- A. Hepatic flexure
- B. Liver
- C. 4th part of duodenum (Correct Answer)
- D. 2nd part of duodenum
Explanation: ***4th part of duodenum*** - The **4th part of the duodenum** is located to the **left of the vertebral column** and is related to the **left kidney**, not the right kidney. - This segment passes superiorly along the left side of the aorta to become continuous with the jejunum at the duodenojejunal flexure. *Liver* - The **right kidney's superior part** is in direct contact with the **right lobe of the liver**, often separated only by the peritoneum [1]. - This is a significant anterior relation, explaining why liver enlargement can sometimes displace the right kidney. *Hepatic flexure* - The **hepatic flexure** (right colic flexure) of the colon lies immediately inferior to the liver and anterior to the **lower part of the right kidney**. - This anatomical relationship means that the right kidney can be affected by diseases of the colon in this region. *2nd part of duodenum* - The **descending (2nd) part of the duodenum** lies anterior to the **hilum and medial part of the right kidney** [1]. - Its retroperitoneal position places it in close proximity to the renal structures, making it a key anterior relation.
Biochemistry
6 questionsWhich glycogen storage disease also presents as a lysosomal storage disease?
Km value is defined as:
Which enzyme is required for cutting the DNA strand during synthesis?
Enzymes that move a molecular group from one molecule to another are known as -
In the electron transport chain (ETC), which enzyme does cyanide inhibit?
Enzymes of glycolysis are found in:
NEET-PG 2012 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 261: Which glycogen storage disease also presents as a lysosomal storage disease?
- A. Von Gierke's disease
- B. McArdle's disease
- C. Andersen's disease
- D. Pompe's disease (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Pompe's disease*** - Also known as **glycogen storage disease type II**, it is caused by a deficiency of **acid alpha-glucosidase (GAA)**, a *lysosomal enzyme*. - This deficiency leads to the accumulation of **glycogen in lysosomes**, particularly affecting muscle tissue, thereby earning its classification as both a glycogen storage disease and a lysosomal storage disease. *Von Gierke's disease* - This is **glycogen storage disease type I** and is due to a deficiency in **glucose-6-phosphatase**. - It primarily affects the **liver and kidneys**, causing severe **hypoglycemia** and **lactic acidosis**, but it is not classified as a lysosomal storage disease. *McArdle's disease* - This is **glycogen storage disease type V**, caused by a deficiency in **muscle glycogen phosphorylase (myophosphorylase)**. - It manifests as **exercise intolerance** and muscle pain, but it does not involve lysosomal enzyme defects or glycogen accumulation in lysosomes. *Andersen's disease* - This is **glycogen storage disease type IV**, caused by a deficiency in the **glycogen branching enzyme**. - It leads to the formation of **abnormal glycogen structures**, primarily affecting the liver and causing early liver failure, but it is not a lysosomal storage disorder.
Question 262: Km value is defined as:
- A. Substrate concentration at Vmax/2 (Correct Answer)
- B. Substrate concentration at which reaction rate is maximum
- C. Substrate concentration at Vmax
- D. Substrate concentration at which enzyme activity is optimal
Explanation: ***Substrate concentration at Vmax/2*** - The **Michaelis constant (Km)** is defined as the **substrate concentration** at which the reaction velocity is **half of the maximum velocity (Vmax/2)**. - It reflects the **affinity of an enzyme for its substrate**; a lower Km indicates higher affinity. *Substrate concentration at which reaction rate is maximum* - The **maximum reaction rate (Vmax)** is achieved when the enzyme is **saturated with substrate**, meaning all active sites are occupied. - Km specifically refers to the substrate concentration needed to reach **half of this maximum rate**, not the maximum rate itself. *Substrate concentration at Vmax* - At **Vmax**, the enzyme is fully saturated with substrate, and the reaction rate cannot increase further by adding more substrate. - The **Km value** is a measure related to the **efficiency of substrate binding** at conditions below saturation, specifically at half Vmax. *Substrate concentration at which enzyme activity is optimal* - **Optimal enzyme activity** is generally influenced by factors such as **pH and temperature**, which affect the enzyme's structure and catalytic efficiency. - Km is specifically related to the **substrate concentration** required to achieve a specific reaction rate, not the overall optimal environmental conditions for the enzyme.
Question 263: Which enzyme is required for cutting the DNA strand during synthesis?
- A. DNA polymerase
- B. DNA ligase
- C. Topoisomerase (Correct Answer)
- D. Helicase
Explanation: ***Topoisomerase*** - **Topoisomerases** are enzymes essential for DNA replication; they induce temporary **single- or double-strand breaks** in DNA to relieve **supercoiling** ahead of the replication fork. - This cutting and rejoining activity prevents the DNA from becoming excessively tangled and facilitates the unwinding process required for synthesis. *DNA polymerase* - **DNA polymerase** is responsible for **synthesizing new DNA strands** by adding nucleotides, not for cutting the DNA backbone. - It works by moving along the template strand, reading the bases, and then adding complementary nucleotides to the growing DNA strand. *DNA ligase* - **DNA ligase** functions to **join DNA fragments** together by forming phosphodiester bonds, especially in sealing Okazaki fragments during lagging strand synthesis. - Its role is to ligate (join) cut strands, not to initiate cuts in the DNA. *Helicase* - **Helicase** unwinds the DNA double helix into single strands using ATP hydrolysis; it **separates the two strands** but does not cut the phosphodiester backbone. - This enzyme creates the replication fork by disrupting hydrogen bonds between base pairs, making the DNA accessible for replication machinery.
Question 264: Enzymes that move a molecular group from one molecule to another are known as -
- A. Transferases (Correct Answer)
- B. Ligases
- C. Dipeptidases
- D. Oxido-reductases
Explanation: ***Transferases*** - **Transferases** are a class of enzymes that catalyze the transfer of a specific functional group (e.g., methyl, acetyl, phosphate) from one molecule (the donor) to another (the acceptor). - This broad category includes enzymes vital for many metabolic pathways, such as **kinases** (transferring phosphate groups) and **transaminases** (transferring amino groups). *Ligases* - **Ligases** are enzymes responsible for joining two large molecules together, typically by forming a new chemical bond. - This process usually involves the concomitant hydrolysis of a small, energy-rich molecule such as **ATP**, to provide the necessary energy for bond formation. *Dipeptidases* - **Dipeptidases** are a type of hydrolase enzyme that specifically cleaves the peptide bond within a **dipeptide**, releasing two free amino acids. - They are crucial for the final stages of protein digestion, breaking down small peptides into absorbable **amino acid units**. *Oxido-reductases* - **Oxido-reductases** are enzymes that catalyze **oxidation-reduction reactions** (redox reactions), where electrons are transferred from one molecule to another. - This class includes enzymes like **dehydrogenases** and **oxidases**, which play critical roles in cellular respiration and energy production.
Question 265: In the electron transport chain (ETC), which enzyme does cyanide inhibit?
- A. Complex II (Succinate dehydrogenase)
- B. Cytochrome c oxidase (Complex IV) (Correct Answer)
- C. Complex I (NADH dehydrogenase)
- D. Complex III (Cytochrome bc1 complex)
Explanation: ***Cytochrome c oxidase (Complex IV)*** - Cyanide binds to the **ferric iron (Fe3+)** in the heme a3 component of cytochrome c oxidase, blocking the final transfer of electrons to oxygen. - This inhibition effectively halts the entire **electron transport chain** and **oxidative phosphorylation**, leading to rapid cellular energy depletion. *Complex I (NADH dehydrogenase)* - While other toxins can inhibit Complex I (e.g., rotenone, amytal), **cyanide specifically targets Complex IV**. - Inhibition here prevents the entry of electrons from **NADH** into the ETC, but it's not cyanide's primary site of action. *Complex III (Cytochrome bc1 complex)* - Complex III is involved in transferring electrons from **ubiquinol** to cytochrome c, but it is not directly inhibited by cyanide. - Antimycin A is a well-known inhibitor of Complex III. *Complex II (Succinate dehydrogenase)* - Complex II directly receives electrons from **succinate** in the citric acid cycle and passes them to ubiquinone, bypassing Complex I. - Cyanide does not inhibit Complex II; inhibitors of this complex include malonate.
Question 266: Enzymes of glycolysis are found in:
- A. Cytosol (Correct Answer)
- B. Cell membrane
- C. Mitochondria
- D. Ribosomes
Explanation: ***Cytosol*** - Glycolysis is a metabolic pathway that occurs in the **cytosol** of cells. - All the enzymes required for the conversion of glucose to pyruvate are freely dissolved in the **cytoplasm**. *Cell membrane* - The cell membrane is primarily involved in **regulating the passage of substances** into and out of the cell, as well as cell signaling. - Glycolytic enzymes are not associated with the cell membrane. *Mitochondria* - Mitochondria are the primary site of **oxidative phosphorylation** and the **citric acid cycle**, not glycolysis. - While pyruvate (the end product of glycolysis) moves into the mitochondria for further metabolism, the initial glycolytic steps do not occur there. *Ribosomes* - Ribosomes are responsible for **protein synthesis** (translation). - They do not contain enzymes for metabolic pathways like glycolysis.
Physiology
2 questionsGrowth hormone level is highest during
Insensible water loss per day is ?
NEET-PG 2012 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 261: Growth hormone level is highest during
- A. Sleep (Correct Answer)
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Fasting
- D. Exercise
Explanation: ***Sleep*** - Growth hormone (GH) secretion is **pulsatile**, with the largest and most consistent pulses occurring during **slow-wave sleep** (deep sleep). - This nocturnal surge contributes significantly to the overall daily GH output and is crucial for growth and metabolic regulation. *Hypoglycemia* - While **hypoglycemia** is a potent stimulus for GH release, it is an acute stress response rather than a state where GH levels are consistently highest. - The body's primary response to hypoglycemia is to raise blood glucose, and while GH helps, it is not the peak physiological secretion time. *Fasting* - **Prolonged fasting** can increase GH secretion as a mechanism to mobilize fat stores and conserve glucose. - However, the peak levels due to fasting are generally less pronounced than the dramatic surge observed during deep sleep. *Exercise* - **Vigorous exercise** can acutely stimulate GH release, particularly with sustained effort. - This increase is typically transient and not as high or consistently cyclical as the secretion during nocturnal sleep.
Question 262: Insensible water loss per day is ?
- A. 100 ml
- B. 1000 ml (Correct Answer)
- C. 700 ml
- D. 300 ml
Explanation: ***1000 ml*** - **Insensible water loss** occurs through the skin (evaporation) and respiratory tract (exhalation) without conscious perception. - The typical daily insensible water loss in an adult is approximately **800-1000 ml/day**. - **Breakdown**: Skin evaporation (~400-500 ml) + Respiratory tract (~300-400 ml) = **~900-1000 ml total**. - **1000 ml** is the standard value cited in major physiology textbooks (Guyton & Hall, Ganong) and is the most commonly accepted answer for NEET PG examinations. *100 ml* - This value is significantly **lower** than the actual insensible water loss, which occurs continuously throughout the day. - Such a low volume would imply negligible evaporation and respiratory loss, which is not physiologically accurate. *300 ml* - While greater than 100 ml, 300 ml is still **far below** the typical range for daily insensible water loss. - This amount represents only about one-third of the actual insensible losses from the skin and respiratory system combined. *700 ml* - Although this value is sometimes mentioned in literature, it is at the **lower end** of the physiological range. - The more widely accepted standard value for insensible water loss in a healthy adult under normal conditions is **900-1000 ml/day**. - 700 ml would underestimate the normal daily insensible losses.