Anatomy
1 questionsCorpora arenacea is seen in?
NEET-PG 2012 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 141: Corpora arenacea is seen in?
- A. Pineal (Correct Answer)
- B. Seminal vesicle
- C. Breast
- D. Prostate
Explanation: ***Pineal*** - **Corpora arenacea**, also known as **brain sand**, are calcium deposits found in the pineal gland. - Their presence is a normal, age-related finding and increases with age, though their exact physiological role is not fully understood. *Prostate* - The prostate gland contains **corpora amylacea**, which are concentric calcifications found within the glandular acini. - While similar in appearance to corpora arenacea, they are distinct structures specific to the prostate. *Seminal vesicle* - The seminal vesicles produce a fluid component of semen, and while they may occasionally show calcifications, these are typically due to stones or chronic inflammation, not the characteristic "brain sand" seen in the pineal gland. - They do not contain corpora arenacea as a normal physiological feature. *Breast* - Calcifications in the breast are common and can be either benign (e.g., **fibrocystic changes**, vascular calcifications) or malignant (e.g., **ductal carcinoma in situ**). - These calcifications are generally not referred to as corpora arenacea and have different clinical implications and microscopic appearances.
Biochemistry
8 questionsWhich of the following processes does not occur in mitochondria?
Which amino acid among the following has significant UV absorption at 280 nm used in protein quantification?
Chemiosmotic coupling of oxidative phosphorylation is related to which of the following?
Which of the following statements BEST describes the net ATP production in glycolysis?
Which tissue cannot convert glucose 6-phosphate to free glucose due to lack of glucose-6-phosphatase?
Mutation in GLUT-2 causes which syndrome?
In which condition does serum appear milky white?
Which of the following is a non-essential amino acid?
NEET-PG 2012 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 141: Which of the following processes does not occur in mitochondria?
- A. Fatty acid oxidation
- B. Electron transport chain
- C. Glycogenolysis (Correct Answer)
- D. Citric acid cycle (Kreb's cycle)
Explanation: ***Glycogenolysis*** - **Glycogenolysis** is the breakdown of **glycogen** into glucose, which primarily occurs in the **cytosol** of cells, mainly in the liver and muscles. - This process is crucial for maintaining blood glucose levels and providing energy during periods of fasting or increased demand, and it does not take place within the mitochondria. *Fatty acid oxidation* - **Fatty acid oxidation**, also known as beta-oxidation, is a mitochondrial process that breaks down fatty acids into **acetyl-CoA** for energy production. - This occurs extensively within the mitochondrial matrix, producing ATP. *Electron transport chain* - The **electron transport chain** is located in the **inner mitochondrial membrane** and is the final stage of aerobic respiration, producing the majority of ATP. - It involves a series of protein complexes that transfer electrons to oxygen, creating a proton gradient for ATP synthesis. *Citric acid cycle (Kreb's cycle)* - The **citric acid cycle**, or **Krebs cycle**, is a central metabolic pathway that occurs in the **mitochondrial matrix**. - It oxidizes acetyl-CoA, derived from carbohydrates, fats, and proteins, to produce ATP, NADH, and FADH2.
Question 142: Which amino acid among the following has significant UV absorption at 280 nm used in protein quantification?
- A. Tyrosine (Correct Answer)
- B. Alanine
- C. Histidine
- D. Arginine
Explanation: ***Correct Option: Tyrosine*** - Tyrosine contains a **phenol functional group** (aromatic ring with hydroxyl group), giving it **significant UV absorption at 280 nm** (specifically ~274 nm) - Along with **tryptophan** and **phenylalanine**, tyrosine is one of the three aromatic amino acids used for **protein quantification via UV spectroscopy** - The aromatic side chain with conjugated double bonds enables strong UV light absorption *Incorrect Option: Alanine* - Alanine has a **methyl group** as its side chain (non-polar, aliphatic) - **Lacks aromatic rings** or conjugated systems - Does **not absorb UV light** at 280 nm *Incorrect Option: Histidine* - Histidine has an **imidazole ring** (heterocyclic aromatic) in its side chain - While technically aromatic, it has **minimal UV absorption at 280 nm** (weak absorption around 210-230 nm) - **Not used for protein quantification** at 280 nm due to insignificant absorption at this wavelength *Incorrect Option: Arginine* - Arginine contains a **guanidinium group** (highly basic, polar) - **Non-aromatic structure** without conjugated double bonds - Does **not exhibit UV absorption** at wavelengths used for protein analysis
Question 143: Chemiosmotic coupling of oxidative phosphorylation is related to which of the following?
- A. ATP generation by pumping of neutrons
- B. Formation of ATP at substrate level
- C. ATP generation by pumping of protons (Correct Answer)
- D. ATP formation by transport of electrons
Explanation: ***ATP generation by pumping of protons*** - **Chemiosmotic coupling** links the electron transport chain's activity to ATP synthesis through the generation of a **proton gradient** across the inner mitochondrial membrane. - The energy released from the flow of electrons through complexes I, III, and IV is used to pump protons from the mitochondrial matrix to the intermembrane space, creating a **proton motive force** that drives ATP synthase. *Formation of ATP at substrate level* - **Substrate-level phosphorylation** involves the direct transfer of a phosphate group from a high-energy substrate to ADP to form ATP, independently of a proton gradient. - This process occurs in reactions like those in **glycolysis** and the **Krebs cycle**, not in oxidative phosphorylation via chemiosmosis. *ATP generation by pumping of neutrons* - **Neutrons** are subatomic particles with no electric charge and are not involved in biological processes like ATP generation or membrane transport. - Pumping of neutrons has no physiological relevance in cellular energy metabolism. *ATP formation by transport of electrons* - While **electron transport** is an integral part of oxidative phosphorylation, it does not directly form ATP. - The energy released during electron transport is used to create the **proton gradient** (chemiosmotic coupling), which then drives ATP synthesis, rather than ATP being formed directly by electron movement.
Question 144: Which of the following statements BEST describes the net ATP production in glycolysis?
- A. Glycolysis produces 2 molecules of pyruvate
- B. Glycolysis produces a net gain of 2 ATP per glucose molecule (Correct Answer)
- C. Hexokinase consumes ATP during glycolysis
- D. Aldolase catalyzes the conversion of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate into two three-carbon molecules
Explanation: ***Glycolysis produces a net gain of 2 ATP per glucose molecule*** - In the initial "investment" phase of glycolysis, **2 ATP molecules are consumed** to phosphorylate glucose. - In the subsequent "payoff" phase, **4 ATP molecules are produced** through substrate-level phosphorylation, resulting in a net gain of 2 ATP. *Glycolysis produces 2 molecules of pyruvate* - While glycolysis does produce **2 molecules of pyruvate** from one glucose molecule, this statement describes the end product of the pathway, not the net ATP production. - Pyruvate is a crucial product that can be further metabolized in aerobic or anaerobic conditions, but it does not directly represent the energy yield in terms of ATP. *Hexokinase consumes ATP during glycolysis* - **Hexokinase** is indeed the enzyme that catalyzes the first ATP-consuming step in glycolysis, phosphorylating glucose to glucose-6-phosphate. - However, this statement describes only one aspect of ATP utilization within the pathway and does not account for the total ATP produced or the overall net gain. *Aldolase catalyzes the conversion of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate into two three-carbon molecules* - **Aldolase** is a key enzyme in glycolysis responsible for cleaving **fructose-1,6-bisphosphate** into dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate. - This step is part of the preparatory phase of glycolysis but does not directly describe the net ATP production.
Question 145: Which tissue cannot convert glucose 6-phosphate to free glucose due to lack of glucose-6-phosphatase?
- A. Liver
- B. Kidney
- C. Adipose tissue
- D. Muscle (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Muscle*** - Muscle tissue lacks the enzyme **glucose-6-phosphatase**, which is essential for hydrolyzing glucose 6-phosphate back to **free glucose**. - Therefore, glucose 6-phosphate in muscle is primarily used for **glycolysis** (energy production) or stored as glycogen for local use. *Liver* - The liver contains **glucose-6-phosphatase**, allowing it to convert **glucose 6-phosphate** to **free glucose**. - This capability is crucial for maintaining **blood glucose homeostasis** and releasing glucose into circulation. *Adipose tissue* - Adipose tissue, like muscle, **lacks glucose-6-phosphatase** and cannot convert glucose 6-phosphate back to free glucose. - Glucose 6-phosphate in adipose tissue is primarily channeled into **fatty acid synthesis** and storage. *Kidney* - The kidney, particularly the renal cortex, possesses **glucose-6-phosphatase** and can convert glucose 6-phosphate to **free glucose**. - This contributes to **gluconeogenesis** and release of glucose into the blood, especially during fasting.
Question 146: Mutation in GLUT-2 causes which syndrome?
- A. Dandy walker syndrome
- B. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
- C. Menke's disease
- D. Fanconi-Bickel syndrome (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Fanconi-Bickel syndrome*** - This syndrome is caused by a **mutation in the GLUT-2 gene**, leading to dysfunctional glucose transport in the liver, kidneys, and intestines. - Key features include **hepatorenal glycogen accumulation**, **renal tubulopathy** (Fanconi syndrome), and **impaired glucose and galactose utilization**. *Dandy-Walker syndrome* - This is a **congenital brain malformation** involving the cerebellum and fourth ventricle. - It is often associated with hydrocephalus, but not directly linked to glucose transporter defects. *Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome* - This is an **overgrowth disorder** characterized by a high risk of childhood cancer and congenital anomalies. - It is primarily caused by genetic abnormalities on **chromosome 11p15.5** and is unrelated to GLUT-2 mutations. *Menke's disease* - This is a rare X-linked recessive disorder of **copper metabolism**, leading to severe neurological degeneration. - It results from mutations in the **ATP7A gene**, which encodes a copper-transporting ATPase.
Question 147: In which condition does serum appear milky white?
- A. Increased LDL
- B. Increased HDL
- C. Increased VLDL
- D. Increased Chylomicrons (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Increased Chylomicrons*** - **Chylomicrons** are the largest lipoprotein particles (75-1200 nm) with the highest **triglyceride content (85-95%)**, giving serum a characteristic **milky white** or "creamy" appearance - This intense milky appearance occurs after **fatty meals** (postprandial lipemia) or in **Type I and V hyperlipidemias** (familial chylomicronemia syndrome) - The **light scattering** by these large particles makes the serum completely opaque, distinguishing it from other lipid abnormalities - Classic clinical finding: **"cream layer" forms on top** when lipemic serum stands overnight in refrigerator *Increased LDL* - Elevated **Low-Density Lipoprotein (LDL)** produces **clear to slightly hazy** serum, never milky white - LDL particles are much smaller (18-25 nm) than chylomicrons and contain primarily **cholesterol**, not triglycerides - High LDL is a cardiovascular risk factor but does not cause visible lipemia *Increased HDL* - **High-Density Lipoprotein (HDL)** elevation results in **clear serum** - HDL particles are the smallest (5-12 nm) and densest lipoproteins - High HDL is protective and causes no turbidity *Increased VLDL* - **Very Low-Density Lipoprotein (VLDL)** elevation can cause **turbid or hazy** serum in severe hypertriglyceridemia, but typically less intensely milky than chylomicrons - VLDL particles are smaller (30-80 nm) than chylomicrons with lower triglyceride content (50-65%) - In Type IV hyperlipidemia (isolated VLDL elevation), serum appears uniformly turbid without cream layer formation - The most dramatic "milky white" appearance is specifically associated with **chylomicronemia**
Question 148: Which of the following is a non-essential amino acid?
- A. Tyrosine (Correct Answer)
- B. Phenylalanine
- C. Lysine
- D. Threonine
Explanation: ***Tyrosine*** - **Tyrosine** is considered a **non-essential amino acid** because the human body can synthesize it from the essential amino acid **phenylalanine**. - This synthesis occurs via the enzyme **phenylalanine hydroxylase**, making its dietary intake not strictly necessary if phenylalanine is available. *Phenylalanine* - **Phenylalanine** is an **essential amino acid**, meaning the human body **cannot synthesize it** and it must be obtained through the diet. - It serves as a precursor for various important molecules, including tyrosine, contributing to neurotransmitter synthesis. *Lysine* - **Lysine** is an **essential amino acid** that the human body **cannot synthesize** and must be acquired from dietary sources. - It plays a crucial role in **protein synthesis**, calcium absorption, and the production of hormones and enzymes. *Threonine* - **Threonine** is another example of an **essential amino acid** that the human body is **unable to produce** on its own. - It is important for the formation of **collagen** and elastin, and contributes to immune function.
Physiology
1 questionsNonshivering thermogenesis in adults is due to:
NEET-PG 2012 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 141: Nonshivering thermogenesis in adults is due to:
- A. Muscle metabolism
- B. Thyroid hormone
- C. Noradrenaline
- D. Brown fat between the shoulders (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Brown fat between the shoulders*** - In adults, the primary **effector tissue** for **non-shivering thermogenesis** is **brown adipose tissue (BAT)**, with major depots located between the shoulders, around the neck, and along the spine. - **BAT** contains specialized mitochondria with **uncoupling protein 1 (UCP1)** that uncouples oxidative phosphorylation, generating heat instead of ATP. - This is the tissue where non-shivering thermogenesis actually occurs, making it the direct answer to what non-shivering thermogenesis is "due to." *Noradrenaline* - **Noradrenaline** is the key neurotransmitter that **activates brown fat** via **β3-adrenergic receptors** to initiate non-shivering thermogenesis. - While noradrenaline is the **trigger/stimulus**, the actual heat production occurs in brown adipose tissue. - Noradrenaline itself does not produce heat directly; it acts as the signal that activates the thermogenic machinery in BAT. *Thyroid hormone* - **Thyroid hormone** increases **basal metabolic rate** and can potentiate the thermogenic response by upregulating UCP1 expression in brown fat. - Its role is **permissive and long-term** rather than being the immediate effector of acute non-shivering thermogenesis. - It modulates overall cellular metabolism but is not the primary mechanism for rapid heat generation in cold exposure. *Muscle metabolism* - **Muscle contraction** during shivering generates heat through increased ATP hydrolysis, which is **shivering thermogenesis**. - **Non-shivering thermogenesis** specifically refers to heat production **without muscle contraction**, making muscle metabolism the mechanism for shivering, not non-shivering, thermogenesis.