NEET-PG 2012 Practice Questions

Q: Identify the type of connective tissue present in the image.

Dense irregular. ***Dense irregular*** - The image shows **densely packed collagen fibers** arranged in an **irregular, haphazard fashion**, characteristic of dense irregular connective tissue. - This type of tissue provides **strength** and resistance to stress from multiple directions, found in the **dermis of the skin** and organ capsules. *Loose and irregular* - **Loose connective tissue** would show more ground substance and fewer, loosely arranged fibers, whereas this image displays high fiber density. - While it is "irregular" in fiber arrangement, the density of fibers rules out the "loose" classification. *Specialized* - **Specialized connective tissues** include cartilage, bone, blood, and adipose tissue, which have distinct cellular and extracellular matrix components not seen here. - This tissue lacks the specific cellular and matrix characteristics that would classify it as specialized (e.g., chondrocytes in lacunae, osteocytes, blood cells). *Dense regular* - **Dense regular connective tissue** features collagen fibers arranged in parallel bundles, providing strength in one direction. - Examples include **tendons and ligaments**, which are structurally organized in an orderly, aligned manner, unlike the displayed irregular arrangement.

Q: Which of the following statements about the popliteus muscle is false?

Causes locking of knee. ***Causes locking of knee*** - The popliteus muscle acts as the key to **unlocking the knee** from its fully extended, locked position, not causing it to lock. [1] - It achieves this by producing **internal rotation of the tibia** on the femur (or external rotation of the femur on the tibia) at the beginning of knee flexion. *Flexor of knee* - The popliteus muscle contributes to **flexion of the knee joint**, working in conjunction with the hamstrings. - This action is particularly important during the initial phases of knee flexion. *Intracapsular origin* - The popliteus muscle originates from the **lateral condyle of the femur**, specifically from an impression just anterior and inferior to the groove for the popliteal tendon. - This origin point is indeed **intracapsular**, lying within the fibrous capsule of the knee joint. *Supplied by tibial nerve* - The popliteus muscle receives its innervation from the **tibial nerve**, a branch of the sciatic nerve. - The nerve typically arises from the posterior aspect of the tibial nerve trunk as it passes through the popliteal fossa.

Q: What is a significant disadvantage of ketamine?

Delirium. ***Delirium*** - Ketamine is known to cause **emergence phenomena**, which include **vivid dreams, hallucinations**, and **delirium**, particularly during recovery from anesthesia. - This psychotomimetic effect can be distressing for patients and may necessitate the co-administration of a **benzodiazepine** to mitigate these symptoms. *Increased heart rate* - While ketamine does cause an **increase in heart rate** and **blood pressure** due to sympathetic stimulation, this is often considered a disadvantage but not the *most significant* when compared to the unique cognitive side effects. - This effect can be beneficial in patients with **hemodynamic instability**, but can be problematic in those with **cardiovascular disease**. *Increased ICT* - It is often considered a contraindication in patients with **elevated intracranial pressure (ICP)** as it can potentially increase **cerebral blood flow** and thus ICP. - However, recent studies suggest that in adequately ventilated patients, the effect on ICP may be less pronounced than previously thought, making delirium a more consistent and prominent disadvantage for many patients. *All of the options* - While ketamine can cause an **increased heart rate** and potentially affect **intracranial pressure**, **delirium** and other emergence phenomena are often highlighted as a unique and significant disadvantage because they are highly distressing and difficult to manage. - The psychotomimetic effects are a hallmark side effect that often governs its cautious use without concurrent medication.

Q: India started 2-dose vaccination strategy for measles, in -

2010. ***2010*** - India implemented the **two-dose measles vaccination strategy** as part of its Universal Immunization Program starting in **2010**. - This decision was based on recommendations to improve immunity and reduce measles incidence, moving from a single-dose to a more effective **two-dose schedule**. *2008* - While important immunization initiatives were ongoing, the specific policy of a **two-dose measles vaccination strategy** had not yet been introduced in India during 2008. - At this time, the focus was primarily on ensuring high coverage of the **first dose** of measles vaccine. *2009* - The year 2009 saw continued efforts to strengthen the Universal Immunization Program, but the official launch of the **two-dose measles vaccination strategy** in India occurred later. - Discussions and planning for the transition were likely underway, but implementation began in the subsequent year. *2011* - By 2011, the **two-dose measles vaccination strategy** was already being implemented across India, having been introduced in 2010. - This year marked a period of expanding coverage and consolidation of the new 2-dose schedule rather than its initial introduction.

Q: Which of the following is not associated with subcortical dementia?

Alzheimer's disease. ***Alzheimer's disease*** - Alzheimer's disease is primarily a **cortical dementia**, characterized by global cognitive decline, specifically affecting memory, language, and executive functions. - It involves the accumulation of **amyloid plaques** and **neurofibrillary tangles** predominantly in the cerebral cortex. *Parkinsonism* - Parkinsonism, particularly Parkinson's disease dementia, is a common cause of **subcortical dementia**. - It presents with prominent **motor symptoms** (bradykinesia, rigidity, tremor) along with cognitive impairment affecting executive function and attention. *Wilson's disease* - Wilson's disease is a genetic disorder leading to **copper accumulation**, which can cause significant damage to the basal ganglia and other subcortical structures. - This often results in a **subcortical dementia** characterized by motor symptoms, psychiatric disturbances, and cognitive decline. *Huntington's chorea* - Huntington's chorea is a neurodegenerative genetic disorder primarily affecting the **basal ganglia**, a key subcortical structure. - It is a classic example of **subcortical dementia**, presenting with characteristic choreiform movements, psychiatric disturbances, and cognitive impairment.

Q: What condition is primarily diagnosed using Von Rosen's view?

Congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). ***Congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH)*** - **Von Rosen's view** is a specialized X-ray projection used specifically to assess for **developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)**, also known as CDH, in infants. - This view helps visualize the relationship between the **femoral head** and the **acetabulum** by positioning the infant's hips in extension, abduction, and internal rotation. *Perthes disease* - **Perthes disease** is an avascular necrosis of the femoral head, typically diagnosed with standard **frog-leg lateral** and **AP pelvic X-rays**. - While it affects the hip, Von Rosen's view is not the primary diagnostic imaging for this condition, which usually presents later in childhood. *Congenital Talipes Equinovarus (CTEV)* - **CTEV**, or **clubfoot**, is a deformity of the foot and ankle, not the hip. - It is primarily diagnosed clinically and then confirmed with **AP and lateral X-rays of the foot** to assess bone alignment. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH)** is indeed primarily diagnosed using Von Rosen's view, among other methods.

Q: What is the term for a persistent preoccupation with serious illness despite having no or only mild symptoms?

Illness anxiety disorder. ***Illness anxiety disorder*** - This condition is characterized by a **preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness** despite having few or no somatic symptoms. - Individuals with illness anxiety disorder engage in **excessive health-related behaviors** (e.g., repeated checking) or maladaptive avoidance (e.g., avoiding doctor appointments). *Somatic symptom disorder* - Involves **distressing somatic symptoms** that result in significant disruption of daily life, with excessive thoughts or behaviors related to the symptoms. - The focus is on the **symptoms themselves**, rather than the fear of a specific undiagnosed illness. *Conversion disorder* - Features neurological symptoms (e.g., weakness, paralysis, seizures) that are **incompatible with recognized neurological or medical conditions**. - There is a **lack of voluntary control** over the symptoms, and they are not intentionally feigned. *Body dysmorphic disorder* - Characterized by a **preoccupation with perceived flaws** or defects in physical appearance that are not observable or appear slight to others. - This preoccupation leads to **repetitive behaviors** (e.g., mirror checking) or mental acts (e.g., comparing oneself to others).

Q: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of somatization disorder?

Rejection of the sick role. ***Rejection of the sick role*** - Patients with somatization disorder (now classified under **somatic symptom disorder** in DSM-5) characteristically **embrace the sick role**, not reject it - They actively seek medical attention, present with multiple chronic physical symptoms, express significant distress, and often become preoccupied with their perceived illnesses - This adoption of the sick role is a key behavioral pattern distinguishing somatization disorder from malingering or factitious disorder *Absence of pseudo-neurological symptoms* - This is incorrect because **pseudo-neurological (conversion) symptoms** are characteristic features of somatization disorder - Examples include paralysis, blindness, seizures, sensory loss, aphonia, and loss of coordination - These symptoms resemble neurological conditions but lack organic pathology *Absence of pain symptoms* - This is incorrect because **pain symptoms** are among the most common presentations in somatization disorder - Patients typically report pain in multiple sites: headaches, back pain, joint pain, chest pain, abdominal pain - Pain complaints are often one of the primary reasons these patients seek medical care *Lack of sexual symptoms* - This is incorrect because **sexual and reproductive symptoms** are frequently reported in somatization disorder - Examples include sexual indifference, erectile dysfunction, dyspareunia, irregular menses, excessive menstrual bleeding, and vomiting throughout pregnancy - These contribute to the widespread and varied somatic complaints characteristic of the disorder

Q: Investigation of choice for studying Renal Cortical mass

99mTc DMSA. ***99mTc DMSA*** - **99mTc DMSA** (Technetium-99m dimercaptosuccinic acid) is the radiopharmaceutical of choice for imaging the **renal cortex** and assessing **renal cortical mass** and scarring. - It binds preferentially to the cells of the **renal tubules**, allowing for excellent visualization of cortical tissue. *99mTc DTPA* - **99mTc DTPA** (Technetium-99m Diethylenetriaminepentaacetic acid) is primarily used to assess **glomerular filtration rate (GFR)** and renal blood flow. - It is filtered by the **glomeruli** but not reabsorbed or secreted by the tubules, making it suitable for functional studies rather than morphological assessment of cortical mass. *53Cr Study* - **53Cr** (Chromium-51) is used in studies to measure **red blood cell mass**, survival, or gastrointestinal protein loss. - It has no role in the direct assessment of **renal cortical mass** or function. *99mTc Pyrophosphate* - **99mTc Pyrophosphate** is primarily used to evaluate **myocardial infarction** (hot spots) or detect bone lesions. - It is not indicated for, nor does it provide useful information about, **renal cortical mass**.

Q: What is the most reliable diagnostic tool to differentiate between psychological and organic erectile dysfunction?

Nocturnal penile tumescence. ***Nocturnal penile tumescence*** - This diagnostic tool assesses whether a man experiences erections during sleep, which are naturally occurring physiological events. The presence of normal nocturnal erections indicates intact **neurovascular pathways** necessary for erection, suggesting that any daytime erectile dysfunction is likely due to **psychological factors** [2]. - Conversely, the absence of nocturnal erections points towards an **organic cause** for erectile dysfunction, as the physiological mechanism itself is impaired [1]. *Squeeze technique* - The squeeze technique is a behavioral therapy used to treat **premature ejaculation**, not erectile dysfunction. It involves stopping stimulation at the point of impending ejaculation and applying pressure to the glans to reduce arousal. - This technique does not provide any diagnostic information regarding the underlying cause (psychological vs. organic) of erectile dysfunction. *Sildenafil induced erection* - While sildenafil (Viagra) can induce an erection in many men with erectile dysfunction, its response does not reliably differentiate between psychological and organic causes. Sildenafil works by enhancing the effects of **nitric oxide**, leading to increased blood flow to the penis. - Both men with psychological erectile dysfunction and some with organic causes (e.g., mild vascular compromise) may respond to sildenafil, so a positive response does not rule out an **organic etiology**. *PIPE therapy* - "PIPE therapy" is not a recognized medical or diagnostic term for erectile dysfunction. It may be a typo or a misnomer. - Therefore, it does not serve as a diagnostic tool for differentiating between psychological and organic causes of erectile dysfunction.

Question 1

Identify the type of connective tissue present in the image.

Accepted Answer

Dense irregular

Answer

Loose and irregular

Answer

Specialized

Answer

Dense regular

Question 2

Which of the following statements about the popliteus muscle is false?

Accepted Answer

Causes locking of knee

Answer

Intracapsular origin

Answer

Supplied by tibial nerve

Answer

Flexor of knee

Question 3

What is a significant disadvantage of ketamine?

Accepted Answer

Delirium

Answer

Increased heart rate

Answer

Increased ICT

Answer

All of the options

Question 4

India started 2-dose vaccination strategy for measles, in -

Accepted Answer

2010

Answer

2008

Answer

2009

Answer

2011

Question 5

Which of the following is not associated with subcortical dementia?

Accepted Answer

Alzheimer's disease

Answer

Wilson's disease

Answer

Huntington's chorea

Answer

Parkinsonism

Question 6

What condition is primarily diagnosed using Von Rosen's view?

Accepted Answer

Congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH)

Answer

Perthes disease

Answer

Congenital Talipes Equinovarus (CTEV)

Answer

None of the options

Question 7

What is the term for a persistent preoccupation with serious illness despite having no or only mild symptoms?

Accepted Answer

Illness anxiety disorder

Answer

Somatic symptom disorder

Answer

Conversion disorder

Answer

Body dysmorphic disorder

Question 8

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of somatization disorder?

Accepted Answer

Rejection of the sick role

Answer

Absence of pseudo neurological symptoms

Answer

Absence of pain symptoms

Answer

Lack of sexual symptoms

Question 9

Investigation of choice for studying Renal Cortical mass

Accepted Answer

99mTc DMSA

Answer

99mTc DTPA

Answer

53Cr Study

Answer

99mTc Pyrophosphate

Question 10

What is the most reliable diagnostic tool to differentiate between psychological and organic erectile dysfunction?

Accepted Answer

Nocturnal penile tumescence

Answer

PIPE therapy

Answer

Sildenafil induced erection

Answer

Squeeze technique

NEET-PG 2012

Anatomy

Anesthesiology

Community Medicine

Internal Medicine

Orthopaedics

Psychiatry

Radiology

Surgery