NEET-PG 2012 Practice Questions

Q: Stages of anesthesia were established by

Diethyl ether. ***Diethyl ether** - The classic stages of anesthesia (analgesia, excitement, surgical anesthesia, medullary depression) were originally described in relation to the administration of **diethyl ether**. - Its slow onset and prolonged half-life allowed for the clear observation and definition of these distinct stages. *Nitrous oxide* - This gaseous anesthetic has a rapid onset and offset, making it difficult to clearly delineate all four classical stages with its use. - It is often used as an adjunct to other anesthetics rather than as a sole agent for prolonged surgical anesthesia. *Halothane* - Halothane is a potent volatile anesthetic that became popular after ether, but its use also does not typically involve the clear, step-wise progression through all four anesthetic stages as seen with ether. - It was one of the first widely used inhaled anesthetics that largely replaced ether due to better patient control and fewer side effects. *Chloroform* - Chloroform was another early anesthetic but was associated with significant cardiac and hepatic toxicity, leading to its limited use and eventual discontinuation. - While it induced anesthesia, the clear staging of anesthetic depth was primarily established and standardized using diethyl ether.

Q: Ayre's T-piece is which type of circuit

Type E. ***Type E*** - The **Ayre's T-piece** is classified as a **Type E breathing circuit** according to the classification of Mapleson circuits. - It is a modification of the Mapleson A circuit, widely used in pediatric anesthesia due to its high efficiency and low resistance. *Type A* - **Mapleson A circuits** have the fresh gas flow (FGF) inlet near the patient and a reservoir bag at the circuit's most distal end. - While very efficient for spontaneous ventilation, they are not the same as an Ayre's T-piece. *Type B* - **Mapleson B circuits** have the fresh gas flow inlet and the reservoir bag near the patient, with the expiratory valve further away. - This configuration is generally inefficient for both spontaneous and controlled ventilation. *Type D* - **Mapleson D circuits** have the fresh gas flow inlet near the patient and the expiratory valve close to the reservoir bag, which is distal to the patient. - These circuits are commonly used for controlled ventilation, but are not the Ayre's T-piece.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of pemphigus vulgaris?

Subepidermal bulla. ***Subepidermal bulla*** - Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by **intraepidermal bullae** resulting from acantholysis (loss of cohesion between keratinocytes), not subepidermal bullae. - **Subepidermal bullae** are characteristic of conditions like **bullous pemphigoid**, where the split occurs below the epidermis. *Positive Nikolsky’s sign* - The **Nikolsky's sign** is positive in pemphigus vulgaris, indicating the fragility of the skin where gentle lateral pressure causes epidermal shearing. - This sign is a direct result of the **intraepidermal blistering** due to weakened cell-to-cell adhesion. *Oral erosions* - **Oral erosions** are a very common and often the initial manifestation of pemphigus vulgaris, frequently preceding skin lesions. - These painful erosions are persistent and heal slowly, sometimes making eating difficult. *Tzanck smear showing acantholytic cells* - A **Tzanck smear** from a fresh blister in pemphigus vulgaris typically reveals **acantholytic cells**, which are detached, rounded keratinocytes with basophilic cytoplasm. - The presence of acantholytic cells confirms the **loss of intercellular adhesion** within the epidermis, a hallmark of pemphigus.

Q: Itchy purple papule followed by hyperpigmentation on resolution, is seen in?

Lichen planus. ***Correct: Lichen planus*** - This condition presents with characteristic **pruritic (itchy) violaceous (purple) papules** that often develop **post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation** upon resolution. - The classic presentation follows the **"5 P's": Purple, Pruritic, Polygonal, Planar, Papules**. - Lesions commonly affect the **wrists, ankles, lower back, and genitals**, and may also involve the **oral mucosa** (Wickham's striae). - The hyperpigmentation on resolution is due to **melanin incontinence** and dermal melanophages. *Incorrect: Addison's disease* - Characterized by **hyperpigmentation**, but this is typically diffuse, affecting sun-exposed areas, pressure points, and mucous membranes (e.g., gum line), not discrete papules. - The pigmentation is due to increased **ACTH stimulating melanocytes**, without an initial itchy papular stage. *Incorrect: DM (Diabetes Mellitus)* - Diabetes Mellitus can cause various skin manifestations, including **acanthosis nigricans**, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum, and diabetic dermopathy. - These manifestations do not typically present as itchy purple papules followed by hyperpigmentation, but rather as thickened, velvety skin folds or atrophic, pigmented lesions. *Incorrect: Hypothyroidism* - Can lead to **dry, coarse skin**, and occasionally **non-pitting edema** (myxedema). - It does not present with itchy purple papules or lesions that resolve with hyperpigmentation.

Q: Corkscrew esophagus is seen in which of the following conditions ?

Diffuse esophagus spasm. ***Diffuse esophagus spasm*** - **Corkscrew esophagus** is a classic radiographic finding in **diffuse esophageal spasm (DES)**, indicating multiple simultaneous, non-peristaltic contractions. [1] - This condition is characterized by **uncoordinated esophageal contractions** that can lead to chest pain and dysphagia. [1] *Scleroderma* - Scleroderma typically causes **hypomotility** or aperistalsis in the esophagus, especially in the distal two-thirds, rather than a corkscrew appearance. [1] - It results from progressive **fibrosis and atrophy of the smooth muscle**, leading to esophageal dilation and reflux symptoms. [1] *Achalasia cardia* - Achalasia is defined by the **failure of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) to relax** and loss of peristalsis in the esophageal body, leading to a "bird-beak" appearance on barium swallow. [2] - It features a **dilated esophagus** proximally to the tight LES, not multiple indentations. [2] *Carcinoma esophagus* - Esophageal carcinoma usually presents as a **focal stricture**, mass, or irregular lumen on imaging, often causing dysphagia that is progressive. - It does not typically cause the diffuse, segmental contractions characteristic of a corkscrew esophagus.

Q: Least common presentation of twins?

Both transverse. ***Correct: Both transverse*** - A **transverse lie** means both fetuses are positioned horizontally across the uterus - This is the **rarest twin presentation**, occurring in approximately **0.5% of twin pregnancies** - The limited uterine space and natural tendency of fetuses to settle into longitudinal positions makes this presentation exceptionally uncommon - **Management**: Requires cesarean delivery due to impossibility of vaginal birth with both twins transverse *Incorrect: Both breech* - **Breech presentation** (feet or buttocks first) is more common in twin pregnancies than in singletons - Occurs in approximately **5-10% of twin pregnancies** - While complicated, both twins being breech is **significantly more common** than both transverse *Incorrect: First vertex and 2nd transverse* - The **first twin being cephalic (vertex)** is the most favorable and common position - The **second twin presenting transversely** can occur after delivery of the first twin when increased intrauterine space allows position change - This combination is **more common than both transverse** but requires careful management of the second twin *Incorrect: Both vertex* - **Vertex presentation for both twins** (both head-down) is the **most common presentation**, occurring in **40-45% of twin pregnancies** - This is the **optimal presentation for vaginal delivery** - Offers the best outcomes with lowest intervention rates

Q: Cardiac output increases maximum at which week?

30-32 wks. ***30-32 wks*** - **Cardiac output** in healthy pregnant women typically reaches its maximum increase of **30-50%** above pre-pregnancy levels between **28 and 32 weeks** of gestation. - This peak output is sustained until term, primarily driven by a significant increase in **stroke volume** and a moderate increase in **heart rate**. *26-28 wks* - While cardiac output steadily rises throughout pregnancy, the **peak increase** is generally not observed as early as **26-28 weeks**. - At this stage, the increase is substantial but is still progressing towards its **maximum point**. *32-34 wks* - The maximal cardiac output is usually achieved **before** this period, typically by **32 weeks**. - From **32 weeks** onwards, cardiac output tends to **plateau**, not increase further. *34-36 wks* - By **34-36 weeks**, cardiac output has generally already reached its peak and **stabilized**. - There is typically no further increase in cardiac output during this timeframe; rather, it is maintained at its maximal level.

Q: Which of the following statements about the contraction stress test (CST) is MOST accurate?

Negative test is associated with good fetal outcome. ***Negative test is associated with good fetal outcome*** - A **negative CST** indicates that there are no late or significant variable decelerations in response to uterine contractions, suggesting the fetus can tolerate labor. - This finding is strongly correlated with **fetal well-being** and a low likelihood of fetal distress in the near future, with a **negative predictive value of approximately 99%**. *Invasive method* - The CST is considered a **non-invasive test**, as it involves external monitoring of fetal heart rate and uterine contractions. - No instruments are inserted into the body, differentiating it from truly invasive procedures like **amniocentesis**. *Detects fetal well being* - While the CST provides valuable information, it specifically assesses **uteroplacental function and fetal oxygenation reserve** during the stress of contractions, rather than comprehensive fetal well-being. - It identifies fetuses at risk for **uteroplacental insufficiency** but does not evaluate other parameters of fetal health. - Other tests like the **biophysical profile** offer a more comprehensive assessment of fetal well-being, including parameters like fetal breathing, movement, tone, and amniotic fluid volume. *Oxytocin is never used in the test* - **Oxytocin** is frequently used to induce uterine contractions if spontaneous contractions are insufficient for the test (oxytocin challenge test or OCT). - Alternatively, **nipple stimulation** can be used to achieve adequate contractions for the CST.

Q: A 35-year-old woman presents with 4 months of amenorrhea, increased FSH, LH, and decreased estrogen. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Premature ovarian insufficiency. ***Premature ovarian insufficiency (POI)*** - The patient's age (35 years) combined with 4 months of **amenorrhea**, increased **FSH** and **LH**, and decreased **estrogen** is characteristic of premature ovarian insufficiency (also called premature ovarian failure). - The hormonal profile (**hypergonadotropic hypogonadism**) indicates ovarian failure occurring before the age of **40 years**, which defines POI. - POI affects approximately **1% of women under 40** and can present with amenorrhea, infertility, and symptoms of estrogen deficiency. *Menopause* - Menopause is diagnosed after **12 consecutive months of amenorrhea** in a woman, typically occurring around age **51 years** (natural menopause). - While the hormonal profile of elevated FSH/LH and low estrogen is consistent with menopause, the patient's **age of 35 years** and **only 4 months of amenorrhea** do not meet the criteria for natural menopause. *Late menopause* - Late menopause refers to menopause occurring at a later age than average, typically after age **55 years**. - This diagnosis is completely inconsistent with the patient's age of 35 years. *Perimenopause* - Perimenopause is the transitional phase leading up to menopause, characterized by **irregular menstrual cycles** and **fluctuating hormone levels**. - While FSH levels may be elevated at times, perimenopause typically shows **variable hormone levels** rather than the sustained pattern of high FSH/LH with low estrogen seen in this case. - The **sustained amenorrhea** and pronounced hormonal shifts indicate ovarian failure (POI) rather than perimenopausal transition.

Q: Which of the following is a nonionic dye used in medical imaging?

Iohexol. ***Iohexol*** - **Iohexol** is a widely used **nonionic, low-osmolality contrast medium** in various medical imaging procedures. - Nonionic contrast agents generally have a **lower incidence of adverse reactions** compared to ionic agents due to their reduced osmolality. *Iothalamate* - **Iothalamate** is an **ionic, high-osmolality contrast medium**. - High-osmolality ionic agents are associated with a **higher risk of adverse events**, such as anaphylactoid reactions and nephrotoxicity. *Ioxaglate* - **Ioxaglate** is an **ionic dimer**, often described as a "monoacidic dimer," which gives it **lower osmolality** than traditional ionic monomers, but it is still fundamentally ionic. - While it has a better safety profile than older ionic monomers, it still differs structurally and functionally from true nonionic agents like iohexol. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Iohexol** is indeed a nonionic dye used in medical imaging, fitting the description.

Question 1

Stages of anesthesia were established by

Accepted Answer

Diethyl ether

Answer

Nitrous oxide

Answer

Halothane

Answer

Chloroform

Question 2

Ayre's T-piece is which type of circuit

Accepted Answer

Type E

Answer

Type A

Answer

Type B

Answer

Type D

Question 3

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of pemphigus vulgaris?

Accepted Answer

Subepidermal bulla

Answer

Oral erosions

Answer

Tzanck smear showing acantholytic cells

Answer

Positive Nikolsky’s sign

Question 4

Itchy purple papule followed by hyperpigmentation on resolution, is seen in?

Accepted Answer

Lichen planus

Answer

Addison's disease

Answer

DM

Answer

Hypothyroidism

Question 5

Corkscrew esophagus is seen in which of the following conditions ?

Accepted Answer

Diffuse esophagus spasm

Answer

Scleroderma

Answer

Achalasia cardia

Answer

Carcinoma esophagus

Question 6

Least common presentation of twins?

Accepted Answer

Both transverse

Answer

Both breech

Answer

First vertex and 2nd transverse

Answer

Both vertex

Question 7

Cardiac output increases maximum at which week?

Accepted Answer

30-32 wks

Answer

26-28 wks

Answer

34-36 wks

Answer

32-34 wks

Question 8

Which of the following statements about the contraction stress test (CST) is MOST accurate?

Accepted Answer

Negative test is associated with good fetal outcome

Answer

Invasive method

Answer

Detects fetal well being

Answer

Oxytocin is never used in the test

Question 9

A 35-year-old woman presents with 4 months of amenorrhea, increased FSH, LH, and decreased estrogen. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Premature ovarian insufficiency

Answer

Menopause

Answer

Late menopause

Answer

Perimenopause

Question 10

Which of the following is a nonionic dye used in medical imaging?

Accepted Answer

Iohexol

Answer

Iothalamate

Answer

Ioxaglate

Answer

None of the options

NEET-PG 2012

Anesthesiology

Dermatology

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Radiology