NEET-PG 2012 Practice Questions

Q: In an EMG/NCV study, which radiculopathy is most closely associated with the H. reflex?

S1 radiculopathy. ***S1 radiculopathy*** - The **H-reflex (Hoffmann reflex)** primarily assesses the integrity of the **S1 nerve root** and the **tibial nerve** pathway. - A diminished or absent H-reflex is a sensitive indicator of **S1 radiculopathy**, often correlating with **Achilles reflex loss** [1]. *L3 radiculopathy* - **L3 radiculopathy** typically affects the **quadriceps muscle** and the **patellar reflex** [1]. - The H-reflex is not a primary diagnostic tool for isolated L3 nerve root involvement. *L4 radiculopathy* - **L4 radiculopathy** usually presents with weakness in **tibialis anterior** and altered sensation over the medial leg/foot [1]. - While it can sometimes impact the patellar reflex, the H-reflex is not the most direct or specific measure for L4 involvement. *L5 radiculopathy* - **L5 radiculopathy** often leads to weakness in **foot dorsiflexion** and **toe extension**, with sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot [1]. - It does not directly involve the reflex arc assessed by the H-reflex.

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding supracondylar fractures of the humerus?

Extension type most common. **Extension type most common** - **Extension-type supracondylar fractures** account for the vast majority (about 95%) of all supracondylar humerus fractures. - This type typically results from a fall on an **outstretched hand** with the elbow in extension, forcing the distal fragment posteriorly. *More common in adults* - **Supracondylar fractures of the humerus** are predominantly observed in children, especially between 5 and 10 years of age. - They are the **most common elbow fracture in children**, making this statement incorrect. *Flexion type is less common than extension type* - While flexion-type fractures do occur, they are significantly less common, representing only about 5% of all supracondylar fractures. - This type typically results from a direct blow to the posterior aspect of the elbow, with the distal fragment displaced anteriorly. *Both types are equally common* - As established, extension-type fractures are far more prevalent than flexion-type fractures, making them not equally common. - The significant disparity in incidence confirms that this statement is incorrect.

Q: Which of the following describes grade 2 fracture neck femur?

Complete fracture with undisplaced neck. ***Complete fracture with undisplaced neck*** - A **Garden Type II fracture** of the femoral neck is characterized by a **complete fracture line** through the femoral neck. - Despite the complete fracture, the **femoral head remains undisplaced** and in its anatomical position, indicating an intact or minimally disrupted posteromedial soft-tissue hinge. *Incomplete fracture, medial trabeculae intact* - This description corresponds to a **Garden Type I fracture**, which is an **incomplete fracture** of the femoral neck, usually impacted in valgus. - In such cases, the medial trabeculae are often intact, or show buckling on the lateral side, indicating a stable fracture. *Complete fracture with ischemic head* - The presence of an **ischemic head** is a complication that can occur with any displaced femoral neck fracture (Garden Type III or IV), but it's not a primary defining characteristic of a specific Garden grade. - **Avascular necrosis (AVN)** of the femoral head is a risk, especially with displacement, due to disruption of the blood supply. *Moderate displacement of neck, vascularity damaged* - This description is more consistent with a **Garden Type III fracture**, where there is a **complete fracture with moderate displacement** of the femoral head, usually with some varus angulation. - Such displacement significantly increases the risk of **vascular injury** to the femoral head, predisposing to avascular necrosis.

Q: Anterolateral decompression is primarily indicated for

Spinal tuberculosis (Pott's disease). ***Spinal tuberculosis (Pott's disease)*** - **Anterolateral decompression** is crucial for **Pott's disease** to remove infected bone and pus, relieve pressure on the spinal cord, and facilitate fusion. - This approach allows direct access to the anterior spinal column, which is commonly affected by the destructive process of **tuberculosis**. *Spinal metastasis* - While spinal metastasis can cause compression, **anterolateral decompression** is less common as a primary approach; often, surgical treatment involves posterior decompression, stabilization, and adjuvant therapies like radiation. - The goal is often **pain management** and neurological preservation in the context of advanced disease. *Lumbar disc herniation* - **Lumbar disc herniation** is typically addressed by posterior approaches like **microdiscectomy** or laminectomy, which directly access the posterior aspect of the disc. - **Anterolateral decompression** is generally not indicated as the primary treatment for standard disc herniations. *Ankylosing spondylitis* - Surgical intervention in **ankylosing spondylitis** is usually reserved for severe kyphosis or spinal fractures, employing osteotomies and stabilization techniques, often through posterior approaches. - **Anterolateral decompression** is not a standard procedure for the typical manifestations or complications of **ankylosing spondylitis**.

Q: Which of the following bone tumors characteristically presents with nocturnal pain relieved by NSAIDs and shows a radiolucent nidus surrounded by sclerotic bone?

Osteoid osteoma. ***Osteoid osteoma*** - This benign bone tumor is characterized by **nocturnal pain** that is typically **relieved by NSAIDs**, a highly distinctive clinical feature due to prostaglandin production within the nidus. - Radiographically, it presents as a small **radiolucent nidus** (less than 1.5 cm) surrounded by a significant margin of **sclerotic bone**. *Chondrosarcoma* - This is a **malignant cartilage-forming tumor** that usually presents with a dull, aching pain that is often **not relieved by NSAIDs** and may worsen over time. - Radiographically, it appears as a **large, destructive lesion with calcifications**, not a small nidus with surrounding sclerosis. *Enchondroma* - An enchondroma is a **benign cartilaginous tumor** that is typically found in the medullary cavity of long bones, often in the small bones of the hands and feet. - It is usually **asymptomatic** and discovered incidentally, and on imaging, it appears as a **well-circumscribed lytic lesion** without the prominent sclerotic rim or specific nocturnal pain pattern seen in osteoid osteoma. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **osteoid osteoma** perfectly matches the clinical and radiographic description provided in the question.

Q: What type of cast is primarily associated with the development of Cast syndrome?

Hip spica cast. ***Hip spica cast*** - A **hip spica cast** encases the trunk and one or both legs, increasing intra-abdominal pressure due to its extensive coverage. - This pressure can compress the **superior mesenteric artery** against the **duodenum**, leading to Cast syndrome (also known as superior mesenteric artery syndrome). *Full arm cast* - A full arm cast does not cover the abdomen and therefore does not exert pressure on the **superior mesenteric artery** or duodenum. - It is associated with complications like compartment syndrome or nerve impingement in the upper extremity, but not Cast syndrome. *Short arm cast* - Similar to a full arm cast, a short arm cast is limited to the forearm and hand and poses no risk for **abdominal compression**. - Complications are localized to the distal upper limb, such as carpal tunnel syndrome or skin breakdown. *Above knee cast* - An above knee cast covers the lower leg and thigh but does not extend to the abdomen. - It does not contribute to the increased intra-abdominal pressure necessary for the development of **superior mesenteric artery syndrome**.

Q: Narcolepsy is due to abnormality in ?

Hypothalamus. **Hypothalamus** - Narcolepsy is primarily caused by the loss of **orexin (hypocretin)** producing neurons in the **hypothalamus**, which are crucial for maintaining wakefulness. - This deficiency leads to dysregulation of **sleep-wake cycles**, causing excessive daytime sleepiness and other narcolepsy symptoms. *Neocortex* - The neocortex is involved in higher-level cognitive functions, sensory perception, and voluntary movement, but it is not the primary site of pathology in narcolepsy. - While sleep stages involve cortical activity, the core deficit in narcolepsy does not originate here. *Cerebellum* - The cerebellum is mainly responsible for motor control, coordination, and balance. - Its dysfunction is associated with ataxic gait and coordination problems, not the sleep disturbances characteristic of narcolepsy. *Medulla oblongata* - The medulla oblongata controls vital autonomic functions like breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure. - While involved in sleep regulation pathways, it is not the primary anatomical location affected in narcolepsy.

Q: Which of the following factors is most commonly associated with suicidal tendencies?

Severe depression. ***Severe depression*** - **Major depressive disorder** is the strongest and most common risk factor for suicidal ideation and attempts, significantly increasing suicidal tendencies [1]. - The profound **hopelessness**, **worthlessness**, and altered cognitive processing associated with severe depression contribute largely to suicidal thoughts [2]. - Depression is present in approximately **90%** of individuals who die by suicide. *Female gender* - While **females** have higher rates of **suicide attempts** and self-harm, **males** have a higher rate of completed suicides using more lethal methods. - Female gender alone is not the most common risk factor for suicidal tendencies compared to the profound impact of severe mental illness like depression [1]. *Chronic illness* - **Chronic medical conditions** can increase the risk of depression and subsequent suicidal ideation due to pain, functional limitations, and loss of independence [3]. - However, chronic illness is generally considered an **indirect risk factor**, often mediating its effect through the development of mental health disorders like depression [3]. *Younger age group* - Suicide is a leading cause of death in **adolescents and young adults**, highlighting significant concern in this demographic [1]. - While younger age is a risk factor, especially with concurrent mental health issues or stressors, it is not as universally predictive of suicidal tendencies as severe depression across all age groups [1].

Q: Which of the following is not a characteristic of schizoid personality disorder?

Suspicious. ***Suspicious*** - **Suspiciousness** and mistrust of others are core features of **paranoid personality disorder**, not schizoid personality disorder. - Individuals with schizoid personality disorder are typically apathetic towards others rather than actively distrustful. *Aloof & detached* - Individuals with schizoid personality disorder are characterized by a pervasive pattern of **detachment from social relationships** and a restricted range of emotional expression. - They often appear emotionally cold and indifferent to praise or criticism, indicating their aloof nature. *Prone to fantasy* - People with schizoid personality disorder frequently engage in **excessive daydreaming** and imaginative fantasy as an escape from reality. - This tendency is a coping mechanism for their limited social interaction and emotional expression. *Introspective* - Schizoid individuals tend to be **preoccupied with their inner world** and thoughts, often to the exclusion of external social interactions. - Their introspective nature contributes to their social withdrawal and isolation.

Q: Hirschsprung disease is confirmed by ?

Rectal biopsy. ***Rectal biopsy*** - A **rectal biopsy** is the most definitive diagnostic test for Hirschsprung disease, revealing the absence of **ganglion cells** in the submucosal and myenteric plexuses. - This procedure involves taking a small tissue sample from the rectum, which is then examined under a microscope for characteristic histological changes. *Per/Rectal examination* - A **per/rectal examination** may reveal an empty rectum followed by a gush of stool and gas upon withdrawal of the finger, which is suggestive but not diagnostic. - It is a **clinical finding** that prompts further investigation but does not provide histological confirmation of aganglionosis. *Rectal manometry* - **Rectal manometry** measures pressures within the rectum and can detect the absence of the **rectoanal inhibitory reflex** (RAIR), a hallmark of Hirschsprung disease. - While highly sensitive, it is a **physiological test** indicating functional abnormalities, but it does not provide the definitive histological diagnosis of aganglionosis. *X-ray abdomen* - An **X-ray of the abdomen** may show dilated loops of bowel proximal to a narrowed, aganglionic segment, indicating intestinal obstruction. - This imaging study is useful for **initial assessment** and identifying signs of obstruction, but it is not specific for Hirschsprung disease and cannot confirm the absence of ganglion cells.

Question 1

In an EMG/NCV study, which radiculopathy is most closely associated with the H. reflex?

Accepted Answer

S1 radiculopathy

Answer

L3 radiculopathy

Answer

L4 radiculopathy

Answer

L5 radiculopathy

Question 2

Which of the following statements is true regarding supracondylar fractures of the humerus?

Accepted Answer

Extension type most common

Answer

Flexion type is less common than extension type

Answer

Both types are equally common

Answer

More common in adults

Question 3

Which of the following describes grade 2 fracture neck femur?

Accepted Answer

Complete fracture with undisplaced neck

Answer

Incomplete fracture, medial trabeculae intact

Answer

Complete fracture with ischemic head

Answer

Moderate displacement of neck, vascularity damaged

Question 4

Anterolateral decompression is primarily indicated for

Accepted Answer

Spinal tuberculosis (Pott's disease)

Answer

Lumbar disc herniation

Answer

Ankylosing spondylitis

Answer

Spinal metastasis

Question 5

Which of the following bone tumors characteristically presents with nocturnal pain relieved by NSAIDs and shows a radiolucent nidus surrounded by sclerotic bone?

Accepted Answer

Osteoid osteoma

Answer

Chondrosarcoma

Answer

Enchondroma

Answer

None of the options

Question 6

What type of cast is primarily associated with the development of Cast syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Hip spica cast

Answer

Full arm cast

Answer

Short arm cast

Answer

Above knee cast

Question 7

Narcolepsy is due to abnormality in ?

Accepted Answer

Hypothalamus

Answer

Neocortex

Answer

Cerebellum

Answer

Medulla oblongata

Question 8

Which of the following factors is most commonly associated with suicidal tendencies?

Accepted Answer

Severe depression

Answer

Female gender

Answer

Chronic illness

Answer

Younger age group

Question 9

Which of the following is not a characteristic of schizoid personality disorder?

Accepted Answer

Suspicious

Answer

Prone to fantasy

Answer

Introspective

Answer

Aloof & detached

Question 10

Hirschsprung disease is confirmed by ?

Accepted Answer

Rectal biopsy

Answer

Per/Rectal examination

Answer

Rectal manometry

Answer

X-ray abdomen

NEET-PG 2012

Internal Medicine

Orthopaedics

Physiology

Psychiatry

Surgery