Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhat is the most common complication of a large Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)?
NEET-PG 2012 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1071: What is the most common complication of a large Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)?
- A. Eisenmenger syndrome
- B. Congestive Heart Failure (CHF) (Correct Answer)
- C. Infective endocarditis
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)*** - A large PDA results in a significant **left-to-right shunt**, increasing pulmonary blood flow and leading to **pulmonary overcirculation**. [1] - This increased workload on the heart, particularly the left atrium and ventricle, can lead to **ventricular dysfunction** and ultimately CHF. [1] *Eisenmenger syndrome* - While a severe complication of an untreated large PDA, it represents a **late stage** where the left-to-right shunt has reversed due to **pulmonary hypertension**. [1] - It is not the *most common* initial complication, as CHF often develops earlier in the disease progression. *Infective endocarditis* - This is a potential long-term complication of a PDA, especially if untreated, due to the **turbulent blood flow** across the ductus. - However, it is less common than CHF, which results directly from the hemodynamic burden imposed by a large shunt. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Congestive Heart Failure** is indeed a very common and significant complication of a large Patent Ductus Arteriosus.
Orthopaedics
5 questionsCommonest ligament injured in ankle injury ?
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of carpal tunnel syndrome?
Which of the following statements about Pott's spine is false?
Apparent lengthening is seen in which stage of TB Hip
Heterotopic ossification is primarily associated with which of the following?
NEET-PG 2012 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1071: Commonest ligament injured in ankle injury ?
- A. Anterior talofibular ligament (Correct Answer)
- B. Calcaneofibular ligament
- C. Posterior talofibular ligament
- D. Spring ligament
Explanation: ***Anterior talofibular ligament*** - The **anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL)** is the **most frequently injured ligament** in ankle sprains because it is the weakest and most commonly stretched during **inversion injuries**. - Its position makes it vulnerable during movements where the foot rolls inward, a common mechanism for ankle sprains. *Calcaneofibular ligament* - The **calcaneofibular ligament (CFL)** is stronger than the ATFL and is typically injured with more severe inversion forces, often in conjunction with ATFL rupture. - While it plays a crucial role in ankle stability, it is not the *most* commonly injured ligament. *Posterior talofibular ligament* - The **posterior talofibular ligament (PTFL)** is the strongest of the lateral ankle ligaments and is rarely injured in isolated ankle sprains. - Its injury usually signifies a **severe ankle sprain** with significant talar displacement or dislocation. *Spring ligament* - The **spring ligament**, also known as the **plantar calcaneonavicular ligament**, is located on the medial side of the foot and supports the medial longitudinal arch. - It is not directly involved in typical ankle sprains, which primarily affect the lateral collateral ligaments.
Question 1072: Which of the following is NOT a symptom of carpal tunnel syndrome?
- A. Phalen's sign
- B. Pain & paraesthesia of wrist
- C. Tinel sign
- D. Ulnar nerve dysfunction (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Ulnar nerve dysfunction*** - Carpal tunnel syndrome specifically involves compression of the **median nerve**, not the ulnar nerve. - Symptoms related to the median nerve include numbness and tingling in the **thumb, index, middle, and radial half of the ring finger**, along with **thenar muscle wasting**. *Tinel sign* - The **Tinel sign** is a common physical examination finding in carpal tunnel syndrome, elicited by tapping over the **median nerve** at the wrist. - A positive sign involves tingling or electric shock-like sensations in the **median nerve distribution**. *Phalen's sign* - **Phalen's sign** is another classic physical maneuver used to diagnose carpal tunnel syndrome, where exaggerated wrist flexion for 60 seconds reproduces symptoms. - This maneuver increases pressure within the **carpal tunnel**, exacerbating median nerve compression. *Pain & paraesthesia of wrist* - **Pain and paraesthesia (numbness and tingling)** in the wrist and hand are hallmark symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome. - These symptoms are often worse at night or with repetitive hand movements, reflecting **median nerve irritation**.
Question 1073: Which of the following statements about Pott's spine is false?
- A. There is disc space narrowing on x-ray
- B. Back pain is an early symptom
- C. Commonest at dorsolumbar junction
- D. Always heals by chemotherapy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Always heals by chemotherapy*** - This statement is false because while **chemotherapy** (anti-tubercular drugs) is the primary treatment for **Pott's disease** (tuberculosis of the spine), healing is not always guaranteed and can sometimes require **surgical intervention** in cases of severe neurological deficit or instability. - The success of treatment depends on early diagnosis, patient compliance, and the severity of the disease, and not all cases resolve completely without residual issues. *Commonest at dorsolumbar junction* - **Pott's spine**, or **vertebral tuberculosis**, most frequently affects the **thoracic** and **lumbar regions**, particularly the **dorsolumbar junction** (T9-L1). - This predilection is attributed to the rich vascular supply and increased mechanical stress in this area. *Back pain is an early symptom* - **Back pain** is often one of the **earliest and most common symptoms** of Pott's spine, due to inflammation and destruction of vertebral bodies. - The pain is typically **localized**, progressive, and may worsen with movement. *There is disc space narrowing on x-ray* - **X-rays** of Pott's spine often show **disc space narrowing** along with vertebral destruction and collapse, differentiating it from pyogenic osteomyelitis where disc spaces might be initially preserved. - This narrowing is a consequence of the tuberculous infection spreading from the vertebral body to the adjacent **intervertebral disc**.
Question 1074: Apparent lengthening is seen in which stage of TB Hip
- A. Stage III (Correct Answer)
- B. Stage II
- C. Stage I
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Stage III*** - In **Stage III (destructive stage)** of TB Hip, significant destruction of the femoral head and acetabulum can lead to superior migration of the greater trochanter. - This superior migration results in **apparent lengthening** of the limb due to the loss of bone structure and joint space. *Stage I* - **Stage I (synovitic stage)** involves inflammation of the synovium with effusion, but no significant bone destruction or joint changes that would cause lengthening. - At this stage, the joint space is usually preserved, and **no appreciable limb length discrepancy** is observed. *Stage II* - **Stage II (cartilage and early bone destruction)** begins to show destruction of articular cartilage and subchondral bone. - While there is some destruction, it is generally not extensive enough to cause the characteristic **apparent lengthening** seen in later stages. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **apparent lengthening** is a well-recognized feature during the advanced destructive phase (Stage III) of TB Hip. - The progressive nature of the disease directly contributes to specific radiographic and clinical findings like **unstable hip** and subsequent lengthening or shortening.
Question 1075: Heterotopic ossification is primarily associated with which of the following?
- A. Bone
- B. Joint
- C. Soft tissues (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Soft tissues*** - **Heterotopic ossification** is the pathological formation of mature, lamellar bone in **non-osseous (soft tissues)** where bone does not normally exist. - This process often occurs in muscles, tendons, ligaments, or fascia, particularly after trauma or neurological injury. *Bone* - Heterotopic ossification is the formation of bone *outside* of normal skeletal structures, not within existing bone. - While it involves bone formation, its defining characteristic is its location in **extraskeletal sites**, not within the bone itself. *Joint* - Although heterotopic ossification can occur around joints, leading to **joint stiffness** and limited range of motion, it is the formation of bone within the **soft tissues surrounding the joint**, not within the joint capsule or articular cartilage itself. - The primary location is the adjacent soft tissue, which then secondarily impacts joint mobility. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because "Soft tissues" accurately describes the primary location where heterotopic ossification occurs. - The condition is specifically defined by bone formation in these non-skeletal sites.
Pediatrics
3 questionsWhat is the threshold for hyperglycemia in neonates?
What is the most common cause of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia in infants?
Which of the following cancers has the highest cure rate?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1071: What is the threshold for hyperglycemia in neonates?
- A. 150 mg/dl (Correct Answer)
- B. 180 mg/dl
- C. 100 mg/dl
- D. 125 mg/dl
Explanation: ***150 mg/dl*** - A blood glucose level greater than **150 mg/dL** is the **standard threshold** most commonly taught and used for defining **hyperglycemia** in neonates. - This value is widely accepted in clinical practice and guides decisions regarding **glucose management** and potential **insulin therapy** in this population. - This threshold is particularly relevant for term and late preterm neonates. *125 mg/dl* - While **125 mg/dL** represents an elevated glucose level and some newer guidelines consider this as a threshold (especially >7 mmol/L), it is **not the standard taught threshold** of 150 mg/dL. - For examination purposes, **150 mg/dL** remains the recognized standard definition. *180 mg/dl* - A blood glucose level of **180 mg/dL** indicates **severe hyperglycemia** rather than the initial threshold for defining hyperglycemia. - While some protocols for extremely preterm infants may use higher cutoffs, this exceeds the standard diagnostic threshold. - Intervention is typically initiated well before reaching this level to prevent complications. *100 mg/dl* - A blood glucose level of **100 mg/dL** in a neonate falls within the **normal range**, not hyperglycemia. - This level is desirable for proper brain development and metabolic function. - Normal neonatal glucose ranges from approximately **40-100 mg/dL** in the first days of life.
Question 1072: What is the most common cause of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia in infants?
- A. Rotor syndrome
- B. Crigler Najjar syndrome
- C. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
- D. Biliary atresia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Rotor syndrome*** - Characterized by **conjugated hyperbilirubinemia** due to a defect in hepatic uptake and storage of bilirubin [1]. - This condition can lead to elevated levels of **direct (conjugated) bilirubin** without significant liver damage. *Crigler Najjar* - This condition primarily causes **unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia** due to a deficiency of the enzyme **uridine diphosphate glucuronyl transferase** [1]. - It typically presents with **kernicterus** in newborns rather than conjugated bilirubin elevation. *Breast milk jaundice* - Mainly leads to **unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia** due to substances in breast milk that inhibit bilirubin conjugation. - Generally occurs in **breastfed infants** after the first week of life, not presenting with increased conjugated bilirubin. *Gilbert syndrome* - This syndrome is associated with **unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia** due to a genetic defect in bilirubin conjugation [1]. - Typically benign, it does not cause **increased conjugated bilirubin** levels as seen in Rotor syndrome. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Liver and Gallbladder, p. 860.
Question 1073: Which of the following cancers has the highest cure rate?
- A. Wilm's Tumor
- B. Retinoblastoma (Correct Answer)
- C. Rhabdomyosarcoma
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***Retinoblastoma*** - This **childhood eye cancer** has an excellent prognosis, with a reported cure rate of **over 95%** when diagnosed early and treated promptly. - Treatment options like **chemotherapy**, **radiation**, **laser therapy**, and **enucleation** contribute to its high survival rate. *Wilm's Tumor* - While **Wilm's tumor** (nephroblastoma) also has a high cure rate in children, typically **around 90%**, it is slightly lower than that of retinoblastoma. - It is a **kidney cancer** primarily affecting children and is highly responsive to treatment. *Rhabdomyosarcoma* - The cure rate for **rhabdomyosarcoma**, a rare and aggressive cancer of the soft tissues, varies significantly based on factors like **tumor location**, **stage**, and **histology**. - Overall survival rates are generally lower than for retinoblastoma and Wilm's tumor, often ranging from **60-70%**. *All of the options* - This option is incorrect because while all three cancers listed have good prognoses, **retinoblastoma** specifically stands out with the highest cure rate among them. - The cure rates for Wilm's tumor and rhabdomyosarcoma, while good, are not as high as that for retinoblastoma.
Surgery
1 questionsMost common organism causing infection after an open fracture?
NEET-PG 2012 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1071: Most common organism causing infection after an open fracture?
- A. Klebsiella
- B. Pseudomonas
- C. Gonococcus
- D. Staphylococcus aureus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Staphylococcus aureus*** - *Staphylococcus aureus* is the **most common organism** causing infection in **open fractures**, accounting for 30-40% of cases. - It is present on **skin flora** and readily contaminates traumatic wounds, making it the predominant pathogen in the immediate post-injury period. - **Antibiotic prophylaxis** for open fractures (cephalosporins) primarily targets *S. aureus*, reflecting its clinical importance. - It causes both **early and late infections** in open fractures and is the leading cause of **post-traumatic osteomyelitis**. *Pseudomonas* - *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* can cause infections in open fractures but is **not the most common** organism. - More frequently seen in **Type III open fractures** with extensive soft tissue damage, **nosocomial infections**, or **delayed infections** after hospitalization. - Associated with **contaminated water exposure** and **chronic wounds** rather than being the primary pathogen in acute open fractures. *Klebsiella* - *Klebsiella* species are typically associated with **nosocomial infections**, particularly **urinary tract infections** and **pneumonia**. - Rarely the primary pathogen in acute open fracture infections. - May be seen in **hospital-acquired** infections in patients with prolonged hospitalization. *Gonococcus* - **Gonococcus** (*Neisseria gonorrhoeae*) is primarily associated with **sexually transmitted infections** and can cause **septic arthritis** through hematogenous spread. - It does **not** cause infections in open fractures as it is not found in the environment or on skin. - The mode of transmission is completely unrelated to trauma or wound contamination.