NEET-PG 2012 — Obstetrics and Gynecology
71 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations
IUCD lasting for 10 years is a:
Calcium requirement above the normal during the first six months of lactation is -
Blastocyst makes contact with endometrium on ?
The thickness of the endometrium at the time of implantation is:
Which structure do cytotrophoblasts invade during implantation?
Which of the following is not a recognized risk factor for endometrial carcinoma?
Which contraceptive method has the lowest pregnancy failure rate (typical use)?
In which period is maternal mortality highest?
What is the energy requirement in late pregnancy?
When should breastfeeding be initiated after a normal delivery?
NEET-PG 2012 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: IUCD lasting for 10 years is a:
- A. CuT - 380A (Correct Answer)
- B. Nova T
- C. CuT - 220
- D. Progestasert
Explanation: ***CuT - 380A*** - The **CuT-380A** is a copper-containing intrauterine device (IUD) specifically designed for a highly effective contraceptive duration of **10 years**. - Its mechanism involves the continuous release of copper ions, which create a hostile uterine environment for sperm and ova, preventing fertilization. *Progestase* - **Progestasert** (or Progestasert system) is a progesterone-releasing IUD that has a much **shorter duration of action**, typically around **1 year**. - Its contraceptive effect relies on the local release of progesterone, which thickens cervical mucus and thins the endometrial lining. *CuT - 220 (shorter duration)* - The **CuT-220** is an older generation copper IUD with a **shorter period of efficacy**, typically around **3 to 4 years**. - It contains a smaller surface area of copper compared to the CuT-380A, hence its shorter lifespan. *Nova T (shorter duration)* - **Nova T** is a copper IUD that is effective for a duration of **5 years**, making it a shorter-acting option compared to the CuT-380A. - While also copper-based, its design and total copper content allow for a more limited period of effectiveness.
Question 2: Calcium requirement above the normal during the first six months of lactation is -
- A. 75 mg/day
- B. 400 mg/day
- C. 550 mg/day
- D. 600 mg/day (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***600 mg/day*** - The increased calcium requirement during the first six months of lactation is primarily due to the significant amount of calcium secreted in **breast milk** for infant bone development. - During lactation, approximately **210-300 mg of calcium per day** is lost through breast milk, and considering **absorption efficiency** and maintaining maternal **bone density**, an additional **600 mg/day** above baseline requirements is recommended. - This additional intake helps meet the demands of milk production and prevent maternal bone demineralization during the period of **peak lactation**. *400 mg/day* - While calcium needs are elevated in lactation, an additional **400 mg/day** is insufficient to fully compensate for the calcium loss through breast milk during the initial, high-volume milk production phase. - This amount does not adequately account for both milk calcium content and the need to maintain maternal bone health during the first six months of lactation. *550 mg/day* - This increment is close but is generally considered slightly below the recommended additional intake for optimal maternal health and infant nutrition during **peak lactation**. - Adequate calcium intake is crucial as insufficient levels can lead to a negative calcium balance and increased risk of maternal **osteoporosis**. *75 mg/day* - An additional **75 mg/day** is a negligible increase and is far too low to meet the substantial calcium demands during the first six months of lactation. - This amount would be grossly inadequate considering that lactating mothers lose approximately **210-300 mg of calcium per day** into breast milk alone, not accounting for maternal physiological needs.
Question 3: Blastocyst makes contact with endometrium on ?
- A. < 3 days
- B. 5 - 7 days (Correct Answer)
- C. 8 - 11 days
- D. 15-16 days
Explanation: ***5-7 days*** - The **blastocyst makes initial contact** (apposition) with the **endometrium** around **day 5-6 after fertilization**. - **Implantation**, which includes adhesion and invasion, typically begins around day 6 and is complete by day 10. - This timeframe allows the blastocyst to travel from the fallopian tube to the uterus and for the uterine lining to be optimally prepared. *< 3 days* - Within the first few days after fertilization, the zygote is still undergoing **cleavage** and development into a **morula**, then a young blastocyst, while traveling down the fallopian tube. - It has not yet reached the uterus or developed sufficiently to interact with the endometrium. *8-11 days* - By 8-11 days, the process of implantation is usually **well underway or completed**, with the blastocyst already invading the endometrial wall. - Initial contact and attachment occur prior to this period. *15-16 days* - This timeframe is well beyond the typical window for initial blastocyst contact and implantation. - By 15-16 days post-fertilization, the embryo would be undergoing **gastrulation** and early organogenesis, assuming successful implantation.
Question 4: The thickness of the endometrium at the time of implantation is:
- A. 7 - 10 mm (Correct Answer)
- B. 20 - 30 mm
- C. 30 - 40 mm
- D. 3 - 4 mm
Explanation: ***7 - 10 mm*** - At the time of **implantation** (day 6-10 post-fertilization, around day 20-24 of the menstrual cycle), the endometrium is in the **mid-secretory phase** and measures **7-10 mm** in thickness. - This is the **optimal thickness** for successful embryo implantation, characterized by a receptive endometrium with **decidualization**, **spiral artery development**, and **glycogen-rich glandular secretions**. - Endometrial thickness <7 mm is associated with **poor implantation rates** and reduced pregnancy success. *3 - 4 mm* - An endometrial thickness of 3-4 mm is **too thin** for successful implantation. - This thickness is typically seen in the **early proliferative phase** (immediately after menstruation), not during the implantation window. - Thin endometrium (<7 mm) is associated with **poor receptivity** and lower pregnancy rates in both natural conception and assisted reproduction. *20 - 30 mm* - An endometrial thickness of 20-30 mm is **abnormally thick** and not conducive to normal implantation. - Such thickness may indicate **endometrial hyperplasia**, **polyps**, or other pathological conditions requiring investigation. *30 - 40 mm* - An endometrial thickness of 30-40 mm is **severely abnormal** and would likely prevent successful implantation. - This extreme thickness suggests significant pathology such as **endometrial hyperplasia** or **malignancy** and requires urgent evaluation.
Question 5: Which structure do cytotrophoblasts invade during implantation?
- A. Decidua capsularis
- B. Decidua vera
- C. Decidua basalis (Correct Answer)
- D. Decidua parietalis
Explanation: ***Decidua basalis*** - The **cytotrophoblasts** invade the maternal **decidua basalis**, which is the portion of the **endometrium** directly underlying the implanted embryo, forming the maternal component of the **placenta**. - This invasion is crucial for establishing the **placenta** and allowing for nutrient and waste exchange between the mother and the fetus. *Decidua parietalis* - The **decidua parietalis** is the portion of the **endometrium** lining the rest of the **uterine cavity**, not directly involved in the immediate implantation site. - It plays a role later in pregnancy, fusing with the **decidua capsularis** as the **embryo** grows. *Decidua capsularis* - The **decidua capsularis** is the portion of the endometrium that overlies the implanted embryo, separating it from the uterine lumen. - It does not undergo invasion by the **cytotrophoblasts** in the same way the **decidua basalis** does. *Decidua vera* - The **decidua vera** is another term for the **decidua parietalis**, referring to the endometrial lining of the uterine cavity that is not involved in the implantation site. - It is not directly invaded by **cytotrophoblasts** during implantation.
Question 6: Which of the following is not a recognized risk factor for endometrial carcinoma?
- A. Infertility
- B. Obesity
- C. Smoking (Correct Answer)
- D. Tamoxifen
Explanation: ***Smoking*** - Smoking is generally not considered a risk factor for endometrial carcinoma; in fact, some studies suggest it may paradoxically **decrease risk** by altering estrogen metabolism. - While smoking is a known risk factor for many cancers, its effect on **estrogen-dependent cancers** like endometrial cancer is complex and often opposite to that of other cancers. *Obesity* - Obesity is a significant risk factor due to the increased peripheral conversion of **androgens to estrogens** in adipose tissue, leading to unopposed estrogen stimulation of the endometrium. - This **elevated estrogen exposure** promotes endometrial hyperplasia and increases the risk of malignant transformation. *Infertility* - Infertility, particularly anovulatory infertility, is often associated with **unopposed estrogen exposure** due to a lack of progesterone production. - This hormonal imbalance can lead to endometrial hyperplasia and an increased risk of developing endometrial cancer. *Tamoxifen* - Tamoxifen, a **selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)**, acts as an estrogen antagonist in breast tissue but as an estrogen agonist in the endometrium. - This estrogenic effect on the endometrium can lead to **endometrial hyperplasia** and increase the risk of endometrial cancer, particularly when used long-term.
Question 7: Which contraceptive method has the lowest pregnancy failure rate (typical use)?
- A. Diaphragm
- B. Condom
- C. Intrauterine Contraceptive Device (IUCD) (Correct Answer)
- D. Oral Contraceptive Pills (OCP)
Explanation: ***Intrauterine Contraceptive Device (IUCD)*** - **IUCDs** are highly effective, with a **pregnancy failure rate of less than 1%** in typical use due to their long-acting and reversible nature, requiring no daily action from the user. - They are **fit-and-forget methods**, eliminating user error inherent in other forms of contraception, leading to very low typical use failure rates. *Diaphragm* - The **diaphragm** has a significantly higher typical use failure rate (around 12-16%) because its effectiveness depends on **correct placement** and consistent use with spermicide before each intercourse. - It is a **user-dependent method**, making its efficacy susceptible to improper use or non-use during sexual activity. *Condom* - **Condoms** have a typical use failure rate of about 13-18%, largely due to **incorrect use**, breakage, or slippage. - Their effectiveness relies heavily on **consistent and proper application** with every act of intercourse. *Oral Contraceptive Pills (OCP)* - **Oral Contraceptive Pills (OCPs)** have a typical use failure rate of approximately 7-9%, primarily because effectiveness is dependent on **daily adherence** at roughly the same time. - **Missed pills** are a common reason for failure, significantly increasing the risk of pregnancy compared to methods that do not require daily action.
Question 8: In which period is maternal mortality highest?
- A. Antepartum
- B. Peripartum (Correct Answer)
- C. Postpartum
- D. No period of maximum risk
Explanation: ***Peripartum*** - The peripartum period encompasses the time immediately before, during, and after childbirth, when the risks of **hemorrhage, infection, pre-eclampsia/eclampsia**, and other **acute obstetric complications** are highest. - The **physiological stresses** of labor and delivery, coupled with potential complications like **uterine atony** or **obstructed labor**, contribute significantly to maternal mortality during this critical window [2]. *Antepartum* - While complications like **severe pre-eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy**, and chronic conditions can occur during the antepartum period, the **acute risks of hemorrhage and infection** are generally lower than during and immediately after delivery [1]. - Most maternal deaths occurring antepartum are due to conditions that ultimately lead to or manifest more severely during the peripartum or postpartum phases, such as undetected pre-eclampsia worsening to eclampsia [3]. *Postpartum* - The postpartum period (especially the first 42 days) also carries significant risks such as **late postpartum hemorrhage, puerperal sepsis, and thromboembolism** [2]. - While substantial, the **magnitude of mortality risk** primarily due to acute events related to labor and delivery (e.g., massive hemorrhage, amniotic fluid embolism) is often concentrated in the peripartum period [2]. *No period of maximum risk* - This statement is incorrect because maternal mortality risk is demonstrably **higher during specific periods** related to pregnancy and childbirth, rather than being evenly distributed [1]. - The physiological changes and obstetric challenges associated with gestation, labor, and the puerperium create distinct periods of elevated risk for maternal morbidity and mortality.
Question 9: What is the energy requirement in late pregnancy?
- A. 2000 calories
- B. 2500 calories (Correct Answer)
- C. 1400 calories
- D. 3000 calories
Explanation: ***2500 calories*** - The energy requirement for women in late pregnancy (third trimester) is approximately **2300-2500 calories per day**, which includes an additional **300-450 calories** above pre-pregnancy needs. - This increased energy intake supports **fetal growth and development**, increased maternal blood volume, uterine growth, and the metabolic demands of pregnancy. - The **2500 calorie** recommendation represents the upper range suitable for most pregnant women with normal activity levels. *2000 calories* - This amount is closer to the **pre-pregnancy energy requirement** for an average woman, but is **insufficient** for late pregnancy. - During the third trimester, failing to meet increased caloric needs can compromise **fetal growth** and lead to **inadequate gestational weight gain**. *1400 calories* - This amount is **severely insufficient** for the increased metabolic demands of late pregnancy. - An inadequate calorie intake can compromise **fetal growth**, lead to **intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)**, and cause **maternal nutrient deficiencies**. *3000 calories* - This caloric intake is generally **too high** for the average pregnant woman with normal activity levels. - Excessive intake is only justified in cases of **multiple gestation**, unusually high physical activity, or specific medical conditions. - Consuming 3000 calories per day without proper justification can lead to **excessive gestational weight gain**, gestational diabetes, and macrosomia.
Question 10: When should breastfeeding be initiated after a normal delivery?
- A. 2 hours after delivery
- B. 4 hours after delivery
- C. 6 hours after delivery
- D. Immediately after delivery (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Correct: Immediately after delivery** - Initiating breastfeeding **within the first hour** of birth (early initiation) is crucial for establishing **successful lactation** and promoting optimal infant health. - This early initiation allows for **skin-to-skin contact**, which helps stabilize the newborn's temperature, heart rate, and breathing, and facilitates **bonding** between mother and baby. - Aligned with **WHO and UNICEF recommendations** for best practice in postpartum care. *Incorrect: 2 hours after delivery* - While earlier is generally better, waiting two hours misses the **optimal window** for initiating feeding and bonding. - The newborn's **alert period** is typically strongest in the first hour post-birth, making it an ideal time for the first latch. *Incorrect: 4 hours after delivery* - Delaying breastfeeding by four hours can make it more challenging for the baby to latch effectively as they may have passed their **initial alert state** and become sleepy. - This delay can also hinder the establishment of the mother's **milk supply**, as stimulation from early feeding is important for prolactin release. *Incorrect: 6 hours after delivery* - Waiting six hours significantly **misses the critical window** for early initiation and can lead to increased difficulties with breastfeeding. - Prolonged delays may necessitate supplementation, potentially interfering with exclusive breastfeeding and establishing a **strong milk supply**.