INI-CET 2021 Practice Questions

Q: A patient who has taken the first COVID vaccine comes for the second dose. An astute nurse noticed that the shoulder was flabby, flat, and was asymmetrical. There was an associated loss of contour of the shoulder joint. Injury to which of the structures might have resulted and was avoidable?

Deltoid muscle. ***Deltoid muscle*** - The **deltoid muscle** is the principal muscle that gives the shoulder its rounded contour. Damage to or atrophy of the deltoid can lead to a **flat, flabby, and asymmetrical shoulder**. - Improper vaccine administration, such as injecting too high or too deep, can directly injure the deltoid muscle, leading to inflammation (**SIRVA - Shoulder Injury Related to Vaccine Administration**) or even deltoid atrophy, which would cause the observed lack of contour. *Supraspinatus muscle* - The **supraspinatus** is primarily involved in the initial **abduction** of the arm and stabilization of the shoulder joint, but it does not significantly contribute to the visible external contour of the shoulder. - Injury to the supraspinatus mainly causes **pain and weakness** with abduction, rather than a visible change in shoulder shape. *Infraspinatus muscle* - The **infraspinatus** is a rotator cuff muscle primarily responsible for **external rotation** of the arm. - Injury to this muscle would cause weakness in external rotation and potentially posterior shoulder pain, but not the noticeable loss of shoulder contour described. *Teres minor muscle* - The **teres minor** is also a rotator cuff muscle assisting in **external rotation** and stabilization of the humeral head. - Similar to the infraspinatus, its injury would impair external rotation and cause posterior shoulder pain, but it doesn't define the overall shape of the shoulder.

Q: A patient after a road traffic accident presents to the emergency room with difficulty in swallowing and slurred speech. Investigations reveal fractures in the occipitotemporal region. Which of the following areas should be tested in order to find the nerve which is involved?

Posterior one-third of tongue. ***Posterior one-third of tongue*** - This symptom complex of **dysphagia** (difficulty swallowing) and **dysarthria** (slurred speech) after trauma to the occipitotemporal region is highly suggestive of damage to **Cranial Nerves IX (Glossopharyngeal)** and **X (Vagus)**. - The **Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)** supplies general and special sensation (taste) to the **posterior one-third of the tongue** [1]. *Anterior two-thirds of tongue* - The **facial nerve (CN VII)** is responsible for taste sensation from the **anterior two-thirds of the tongue** [1]. - General sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is supplied by the **trigeminal nerve (CN V)** via the lingual nerve. *Hard palate* - Sensation to the **hard palate** is primarily supplied by branches of the **trigeminal nerve (CN V)**, specifically the greater palatine and nasopalatine nerves. - Damage to these nerves would primarily affect sensation in the palate, not cause dysphagia and dysarthria. *Soft palate* - The **vagus nerve (CN X)** is responsible for motor innervation to most muscles of the **soft palate**, allowing for its elevation during swallowing and speech. - While soft palate dysfunction can contribute to dysphagia and dysarthria, directly testing sensation here would be less specific than testing the posterior tongue for Glossopharyngeal involvement.

Q: Which nerve is targeted in the nasociliary nerve block?

Nasociliary nerve. ***Nasociliary nerve*** - A nasociliary nerve block specifically targets the **nasociliary nerve** itself. - This block is used to anesthetize the sensory innervation of structures supplied by the nasociliary nerve, such as parts of the **nasal cavity**, **eyeball**, and **skin of the nose**. *Greater palatine nerve* - The **greater palatine nerve** supplies sensation to the posterior hard palate and is targeted in a **greater palatine nerve block**. - This nerve is a branch of the **maxillary nerve** and is primarily involved in dental and palatal anesthesia. *Sphenopalatine nerve* - The **sphenopalatine nerve**, or pterygopalatine ganglion, contains sensory fibers for the nasal cavity, palate, and pharynx, and its block is distinct from a nasociliary block. - A **sphenopalatine ganglion block** is mainly used for conditions like cluster headaches and facial pain, not for direct eyeball sensation. *Anterior ethmoidal nerve* - The **anterior ethmoidal nerve** is a branch of the nasociliary nerve, but a nasociliary nerve block targets the main trunk, which includes all its branches. - While the anterior ethmoidal nerve supplies the anterior part of the nasal septum and lateral wall, it is a **component** of the nasociliary innervation rather than the sole target.

Q: Which pathogen causes attachment - effacement lesion in the intestinal mucosa as shown in the image?

Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli. ***Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli*** - **Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)** is characterized by its ability to cause **"attachment and effacement" (A/E) lesions** on intestinal epithelial cells, as depicted in the image. This involves the effacement of microvilli and pedestal formation. - EPEC utilizes the **Type III secretion system** to inject effector proteins into the host cell, leading to actin rearrangement and the characteristic A/E lesion. *Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli* - **Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)** causes diarrhea by producing **heat-labile (LT) and/or heat-stable (ST) toxins**, which stimulate fluid and electrolyte secretion. - ETEC primarily mediates its effects through toxins that cause increased cAMP/cGMP, leading to secretory diarrhea without significant host cell damage. *Diffusely adherent Escherichia coli* - **Diffusely adherent E. coli (DAEC)** is known to adhere to the entire surface of epithelial cells in a diffuse pattern. - While it can cause diarrhea, its mechanism involves a different adhesion pattern and does not typically result in the dramatic attachment/effacement changes seen with EPEC. *Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli* - **Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)** invades and destroys the epithelial cells of the colon, leading to symptoms similar to **shigellosis**, including dysentery (bloody, mucoid stools). - Its pathogenic mechanism involves intracellular replication and direct destruction of host cells, not the localized attachment and effacement seen in the image.

Q: Nivolumab is used as checkpoint inhibitor in

Hodgkin's lymphoma. ***Hodgkin's lymphoma*** - **Nivolumab** is an **immune checkpoint inhibitor** targeting **PD-1**. It has shown significant efficacy in treating relapsed or refractory Hodgkin's lymphoma, particularly in patients who have failed prior therapies. - Hodgkin's lymphoma cells, specifically **Reed-Sternberg cells**, often overexpress PD-L1, which allows them to evade the immune system, making PD-1 blockade a rational therapeutic strategy. *Medulloblastoma* - **Medulloblastoma** is a common malignant brain tumor in children, and while immunotherapy research is ongoing, Nivolumab is **not a standard treatment** for this condition. - Treatment typically involves **surgery, radiation, and chemotherapy**, with targeted therapies under investigation. *Retinoblastoma* - **Retinoblastoma** is a malignant tumor of the retina, most commonly affecting young children. Treatment usually involves **chemotherapy, laser therapy, cryotherapy, or enucleation**. - There is **no established role for Nivolumab** or PD-1 inhibitors in the routine management of retinoblastoma. *Pleuropulmonary blastoma* - **Pleuropulmonary blastoma** is a rare, malignant lung tumor of childhood. Treatment primarily consists of **surgery and chemotherapy**. - While experimental, there is **no current evidence** supporting the use of Nivolumab as a standard treatment for pleuropulmonary blastoma.

Q: Antimicrobial combinations are used in all except

Gonorrhea. ***Gonorrhea*** - While **gonorrhea** treatment has evolved to include **dual therapy** (e.g., ceftriaxone + azithromycin), this is primarily for co-treatment of potential Chlamydia co-infection and to combat emerging resistance, given as a **single-session treatment**. - Unlike the other conditions, gonorrhea does not require a **prolonged multi-drug regimen** with true synergy or prevention of resistance development during treatment. - The combination is more about empiric co-coverage and resistance concerns rather than the classic indications for antimicrobial combinations (synergy, preventing resistance emergence during therapy, polymicrobial coverage). - This distinguishes it from conditions requiring extended combination therapy. *Intra-abdominal infections* - Involve **polymicrobial etiology** requiring combination therapy to cover both aerobic (e.g., Enterobacteriaceae) and anaerobic bacteria (e.g., Bacteroides fragilis). - Combination therapy ensures broad-spectrum coverage for mixed infections and prevents treatment failures in complex intra-abdominal sepsis. *Malaria* - **Artemisinin-based combination therapies (ACTs)** are the standard first-line treatment for uncomplicated *Plasmodium falciparum* malaria. - Combination therapy reduces drug resistance risk and improves cure rates by targeting different mechanisms of action against the parasite. *Tuberculosis* - Treatment always involves **multi-drug regimen** (isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol) to prevent emergence of drug-resistant strains. - Multi-drug therapy is essential because *Mycobacterium tuberculosis* rapidly develops resistance if exposed to single agents during the prolonged treatment course.

Q: A 55-year-old female patient presented with a $4 \times 3 \mathrm{~cm}$ lump in the right upper outer quadrant, with no axillary lymph node involvement. Mammography revealed BIRADS 4b staging. She underwent breast conservation surgery, and the final HPE report showed high nuclear-grade DCIS with necrosis and 10 mm margin clearance. What is the further management?

Adjuvant radiotherapy. ***Adjuvant radiotherapy*** - For **high-grade DCIS** with necrosis after breast conservation surgery, adjuvant radiotherapy significantly reduces the risk of **local recurrence** (by approximately 50%). - Even with adequate margin clearance (10 mm), radiotherapy is recommended to treat **potential residual microscopic disease** elsewhere in the breast tissue. - This is the **standard of care** for high-grade DCIS post-BCS, particularly when necrosis is present. *Follow up 6 monthly for 2 years and then yearly follow up* - While regular follow-up is essential for all breast cancer patients, it is **not sufficient alone** for high-grade DCIS treated with breast conservation. - **Adjuvant radiotherapy** is necessary to reduce recurrence risk before initiating the follow-up schedule. *Trastuzumab therapy* - **Trastuzumab** is specifically indicated for **HER2-positive invasive breast cancer**. - The patient has **DCIS**, which is **non-invasive (in situ)**, making trastuzumab inappropriate. - There is no role for targeted therapy in DCIS management. *Adjuvant chemotherapy* - **Adjuvant chemotherapy** is generally reserved for **invasive breast cancers**, especially those with high-risk features like lymph node involvement or aggressive tumor biology. - For **DCIS**, even high-grade with necrosis, chemotherapy is **not indicated** as it provides no proven benefit for non-invasive disease.

Q: You are suturing a laceration in the ER using the interrupted suturing technique. What is the angle of needle placement?

90 degrees. ***90 degrees*** - Placing the needle at a **90-degree angle** to the skin surface ensures that the suture comes out perpendicular to the skin edge, creating an **eversion of the wound edges**. - This perpendicular entry allows for an equal amount of tissue to be grasped on both sides of the wound, promoting proper **wound approximation** and healing. *80 degrees* - An 80-degree angle, while close, would not provide the ideal **perpendicular entry** needed to properly evert the wound edges. - This slight deviation from 90 degrees could lead to less precise **tissue approximation** and potentially an inverted wound edge. *70 degrees* - A 70-degree angle is too shallow and would result in the suture entering the wound more tangentially, leading to **inverted wound edges**. - **Inverted wound edges** hinder optimal healing and can result in a less aesthetically pleasing scar. *60 degrees* - A 60-degree angle is significantly too shallow, which would cause the suture to be placed too superficially and horizontally, resulting in **poor wound edge eversion**. - This angle would make it difficult to adequately appose the deeper dermal layers, compromising **tensile strength** and increasing the risk of scar formation.

Q: A 26 year old male patient was brought to the emergency department with abdominal pain and obstipation for 3 days. He gives a history of bull gore to the abdomen 3 days back. His chest X-ray is given below. What is the probable diagnosis?

Hollow viscus perforation. ***Hollow viscus perforation*** - The chest X-ray clearly shows **free air under the diaphragm** (pneumoperitoneum), which is a hallmark sign of a perforated hollow viscus in the abdomen. - The history of **bull gore to the abdomen** and subsequent abdominal pain and obstipation further supports a traumatic perforation of a stomach or intestinal segment. *Hemothorax* - Hemothorax would present as **fluid in the pleural space**, typically seen as blunting of the costophrenic angles or an effusion on X-ray, which is not evident here. - While trauma can cause hemothorax, the prominent finding on this X-ray is intra-abdominal air, not intrathoracic fluid. *Pneumothorax* - Pneumothorax is characterized by the presence of **air in the pleural space**, leading to lung collapse and absence of lung markings in the affected area, which is not observed on this X-ray. - The air seen is clearly **below the diaphragm**, indicating intra-abdominal free air, not air in the chest cavity surrounding the lung. *Intestinal obstruction* - Intestinal obstruction typically presents with **dilated bowel loops** and **air-fluid levels** on an abdominal X-ray, along with abdominal pain and obstipation. - While the patient has obstipation, the primary X-ray finding is free air under the diaphragm, which is not characteristic of an uncomplicated intestinal obstruction.

Question 1

A patient who has taken the first COVID vaccine comes for the second dose. An astute nurse noticed that the shoulder was flabby, flat, and was asymmetrical. There was an associated loss of contour of the shoulder joint. Injury to which of the structures might have resulted and was avoidable?

Accepted Answer

Deltoid muscle

Answer

Supraspinatus muscle

Answer

Infraspinatus muscle

Answer

Teres minor muscle

Question 2

A patient after a road traffic accident presents to the emergency room with difficulty in swallowing and slurred speech. Investigations reveal fractures in the occipitotemporal region. Which of the following areas should be tested in order to find the nerve which is involved?

Accepted Answer

Posterior one-third of tongue

Answer

Anterior two-thirds of tongue

Answer

Hard palate

Answer

Soft palate

Question 3

Which nerve is targeted in the nasociliary nerve block?

Accepted Answer

Nasociliary nerve

Answer

Greater palatine nerve

Answer

Sphenopalatine nerve

Answer

Anterior ethmoidal nerve

Question 4

Which pathogen causes attachment - effacement lesion in the intestinal mucosa as shown in the image?

Accepted Answer

Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli

Answer

Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli

Answer

Diffusely adherent Escherichia coli

Answer

Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli

Question 5

Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) is required in which of the following interpretations of Her2/neu?

Accepted Answer

2+

Answer

All of the options

Answer

1+

Answer

3+

Question 6

Nivolumab is used as checkpoint inhibitor in

Accepted Answer

Hodgkin's lymphoma

Answer

Medulloblastoma

Answer

Retinoblastoma

Answer

Pleuropulmonary blastoma

Question 7

Antimicrobial combinations are used in all except

Accepted Answer

Gonorrhea

Answer

Intra abdominal infections

Answer

Malaria

Answer

Tuberculosis

Question 8

A 55-year-old female patient presented with a $4 	imes 3 \mathrm{~cm}$ lump in the right upper outer quadrant, with no axillary lymph node involvement. Mammography revealed BIRADS 4b staging. She underwent breast conservation surgery, and the final HPE report showed high nuclear-grade DCIS with necrosis and 10 mm margin clearance. What is the further management?

Accepted Answer

Adjuvant radiotherapy

Answer

Follow up 6 monthly for 2 years and then yearly follow up

Answer

Trastuzumab therapy

Answer

Adjuvant chemotherapy

Question 9

You are suturing a laceration in the ER using the interrupted suturing technique. What is the angle of needle placement?

Accepted Answer

90 degrees

Answer

80 degrees

Answer

70 degrees

Answer

60 degrees

Question 10

A 26 year old male patient was brought to the emergency department with abdominal pain and obstipation for 3 days. He gives a history of bull gore to the abdomen 3 days back. His chest X-ray is given below. What is the probable diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Hollow viscus perforation

Answer

Hemothorax

Answer

Pneumothorax

Answer

Intestinal obstruction

INI-CET 2021

Anatomy

Anesthesiology

Microbiology

Pathology

Pharmacology

Surgery