FMGE 2025 Practice Questions

Q: A patient presents with loss of sensation on the posterior surface of the ear along with a lesion. Which structure is most likely involved?

Greater Auricular Nerve. ***Greater Auricular Nerve***- The **Greater Auricular Nerve (GAN)**, originating from the cervical plexus (C2, C3), provides sensory innervation to the **skin over the mastoid process** and the **posterior surface of the auricle (ear)**.- Damage (lesion involvement) to this nerve results specifically in **sensory loss (anesthesia)** in its distribution area, matching the patient's presentation.*Internal Jugular Vein*- This is a large deep vein responsible for major **venous drainage** of the head and neck, not sensory innervation.- Involvement would cause **venous congestion** or potentially severe complications related to thrombosis, not isolated sensory loss.*External Jugular Vein*- This is a superficial vein responsible for minor **venous drainage** of the face and head, running lateral to the sternocleidomastoid muscle.- Any compromise to this vein affects the circulatory system (**venous return**) and does not lead to sensory deficits.*External Carotid Artery*- This is a major artery supplying the extracranial structures of the head; its primary function is **blood supply (perfusion)**.- Lesions would typically cause signs of **ischemia** or hemorrhage in its distribution, not an isolated nerve-related sensory loss on the posterior ear.

Q: A 35 y/o asthmatic patient is scheduled for a minor surgical procedure. Which induction agent and muscle relaxant combination is safest for this patient?

Ketamine and Vecuronium. ***Ketamine and Vecuronium***- **Ketamine** is strongly recommended for asthmatics as it possesses potent **bronchodilating properties** via its sympathomimetic effects, helping prevent **bronchospasm**.- **Vecuronium** is an intermediate-acting non-depolarizing muscle relaxant that causes **minimal to no histamine release**, ensuring cardiovascular stability and avoiding airway irritation.*Propofol and Succinylcholine*- While **Propofol** is often used and generally considered safe (neutral to mild bronchodilation), **Succinylcholine**, a depolarizing agent, carries a potential risk of **histamine release**, although low.- The combination is generally acceptable but less preferred than Ketamine based on the strength of Ketamine's **bronchodilating effect**.*Ketamine and d-tubocurarine*- **Ketamine** is beneficial due to its **bronchodilating effect**, but **d-tubocurarine (DTC)** is highly associated with massive **histamine release**.- DTC often causes severe **hypotension** and significant **bronchospasm**, making it extremely unsafe for an asthmatic patient.*Thiopental and Rocuronium*- **Thiopental**, a barbiturate, is associated with a risk of **histamine release** and potential exacerbation of asthma symptoms or cough upon induction.- Although **Rocuronium** is a safe, low-histamine muscle relaxant, the use of **Thiopental** makes this combination less safe than using Ketamine.

Q: Which of the following health programmes is supported by DANIDA?

Blindness. ***Blindness*** - The **National Programme for Control of Blindness (NPCB)**, initiated in 1976, has historically received extensive financial and technical support from the **Danish International Development Agency (DANIDA)** for implementing **cataract surgery** and eye care services. - DANIDA's support was crucial in developing infrastructure, training ophthalmic personnel, and promoting primary eye care in the early and middle phases of the program. *TB* - The national TB control efforts (RNTCP/NTEP) primarily rely on domestic funding and significant support from the **Global Fund to Fight AIDS, Tuberculosis and Malaria (GFATM)** and the **World Bank**. - The strategy centers on **Directly Observed Treatment, Short-course (DOTS)** and subsequent patient-centric care. *Malaria* - Malaria control is overseen by the **National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP)**, which is typically supported by the Government of India, the **WHO**, and large global health funders like **GFATM**. - The main tools include vector control (e.g., **Insecticide Treated Nets**) and prompt diagnosis/treatment. *HIV* - HIV/AIDS programs, managed by the National AIDS Control Organisation (**NACO**), are heavily funded by the Government of India, along with major international partners like **GFATM** and the **US President’s Emergency Plan for AIDS Relief (PEPFAR)**. - Historically, **DANIDA** has not been the primary collaborating international agency for large-scale HIV/AIDS intervention programs in India.

Q: Which of the following is the use of Shakir's tape?

Appropriate technology. ***Appropriate technology*** - *Shakir's tape* (or **Mid-Upper Arm Circumference/MUAC tape**) is a simple, **low-cost device** used for screening **acute malnutrition** in children, making it an example of appropriate technology for primary healthcare settings - Appropriate technology refers to tools, techniques, and practices that are **practical, sustainable, and easily adaptable** to local conditions, perfectly describing the utility and design of Shakir's tape - It exemplifies the WHO principle of appropriate technology: simple, affordable, culturally acceptable, and maintainable with local resources *Intersectoral coordination* - This refers to collaboration between different sectors (e.g., health, education, agriculture) to achieve health goals - Shakir's tape is a **diagnostic/screening tool**, not a mechanism for policy coordination - Does not involve the organizational structures or policy dialogue necessary for effective intersectoral action *Equitable distribution* - This principle focuses on fair allocation of resources (e.g., vaccines, drugs, services) - While assessing malnutrition helps prioritize resource distribution, the tape itself is a **screening tool**, not a distribution mechanism - Equitable distribution is driven by **policy and resource management**, whereas the tape is a device used in **clinical assessment** *Community participation* - This involves involving the local population in health planning and implementation - While health workers often use the tape within the community, the tape itself is a **measurement instrument**, not a method for fostering participation - Community participation is achieved through **dialogue, decision-making inclusion**, and volunteerism, not through a specific measuring tool

Q: A 30-year-old female presents with a painful red granular lesion on the vulva accompanied by bilateral lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Chancroid. ***Chancroid***- Caused by ***Haemophilus ducreyi***, it presents classically as a **painful, ragged, deep vulvar ulcer** (soft chancre) often described as having an erythematous or granular base.- The condition is characteristically associated with large, sometimes suppurative, **painful unilateral or bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy** (**buboes**), which fits the combined clinical presentation of pain and lymphadenopathy.*Neisseria Gonorrhoeae Infection*- This infection primarily causes **mucopurulent urethritis** or **cervicitis** and is not typically associated with primary, ulcerative, or granular vulval lesions.- While regional lymphadenopathy may occur, it is usually not a prominent, painful finding defining the clinical presentation.*Granuloma Inguinale*- The characteristic lesion is a **painless, highly vascular, 'beefy red' ulcer** which bleeds easily, consistent with the term "granular" but contradicting the crucial feature of being **painful**.- True regional lymphadenopathy is rare; instead, subcutaneous granulomas may mimic lymph nodes (**pseudo-buboes**).*Lymphogranuloma Venereum*- The primary genital lesion is typically a small, **painless, transient papule** or vesicle that is often overlooked.- While it causes severe, painful inguinal lymphadenopathy, the initial vulval lesion is usually not a prominent, painful, granular ulcer as described.

Q: A 29-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and a history of amenorrhea for 6 weeks. Transvaginal ultrasound does not show an intrauterine gestational sac or features suggestive of ectopic pregnancy. Her serum $\beta$-hCG is 1,200 IU/L, which is below the discriminatory zone. What is the next step in management?

Repeat $\beta$-hCG after 48 hours. ***Repeat $\beta$-hCG after 48 hours*** - In a pregnancy of unknown location (PUL) with **β-hCG below the discriminatory zone** (1,500-2,000 IU/L), ultrasound cannot reliably visualize an intrauterine pregnancy - **Serial β-hCG monitoring at 48-hour intervals** is the standard approach to determine pregnancy viability and location - Expected β-hCG patterns help guide management: - **Rise >53% in 48 hours**: Suggests viable intrauterine pregnancy → repeat ultrasound when β-hCG reaches discriminatory zone - **Rise 50% in 48 hours**: Suggests spontaneous miscarriage → monitor to zero - Patient is **hemodynamically stable**, so expectant management with close monitoring is appropriate *Dilatation and curettage* - Premature intervention without knowing β-hCG trend - Reserved for cases where β-hCG plateaus or rises abnormally, suggesting either ectopic or abnormal intrauterine pregnancy - May be used for histological diagnosis (presence of chorionic villi confirms intrauterine pregnancy) *Methotrexate therapy* - Cannot be administered without **confirmed diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy** - Requires meeting specific criteria: hemodynamic stability, unruptured ectopic, β-hCG typically <5,000 IU/L, no fetal cardiac activity - Inappropriate when pregnancy location is unknown *Laparoscopy* - Too invasive as initial management for a **stable patient** - Reserved for hemodynamically unstable patients with suspected ruptured ectopic pregnancy - May be indicated later if ectopic pregnancy is confirmed and meets surgical criteria

Q: All of the following are protected by OCPs except?

Carcinoma breast. ***Carcinoma breast*** - OCPs do not protect against **breast cancer**; large meta-analyses suggest a small, transient increase in risk, particularly with **current or recent use**, which generally dissipates 10 years after stopping. - This marginal increase in risk is attributed to the **estrogen component**, which promotes proliferation in hormone-sensitive breast tissue. *Carcinoma endometrium* - OCPs offer significant long-term protection against **endometrial cancer**, mediated primarily by the **progestin component**, which induces endometrial atrophy. - Protection lasts for many years after discontinuing OCPs and is one of the most prominent non-contraceptive benefits. *Colonic cancer* - OCP use is associated with a reduced risk of **colorectal cancer**, a benefit that appears to be related to the duration of use. - This protective effect is thought to be mediated by the actions of estrogen on bile acid metabolism and subsequent modulation of cell proliferation in the **colonic mucosa**. *Ovarian cancer* - OCPs provide robust, durable protection against **ovarian cancer**, with the risk reduction correlating significantly with the duration of intake. - The primary protective mechanism is the **suppression of ovulation**, which reduces trauma and proliferation of the ovarian surface epithelium.

Q: A mother brings her 5-month-old baby to the clinic for a routine pediatric check-up. The pediatrician observes that the baby actively looks at his mother's face and responds with interest as she talks to him, showing recognition and engagement. At what age is this developmental milestone typically first achieved?

3 months. ***3 months*** - This is the age when infants typically develop a **true social smile** and demonstrate increased interest and sustained gazing at faces, especially parents, showing early **recognition and engagement**. - At this stage, the coordination of vision and social interaction allows the baby to purposefully interact with the caregiver (reciprocal face-to-face exchange), often involving cooing and looking directly at the eyes. - This milestone represents a key social-emotional developmental marker in early infancy. *2 months* - At 2 months, infants typically begin exhibiting a **social smile**, but the sustained, attentive engagement, recognition, and responsive interaction described are usually not fully consistent until 3 months. - Visual skills are improving, but fixation is often transient, and recognition remains basic without the active, responsive interest observed in this scenario. *6 months* - By 6 months, recognition of familiar people is well established; this period is often characterized by the onset of **stranger anxiety** and more mature motor skills like sitting unsupported. - This stage focuses more on object manipulation (e.g., passing objects hand-to-hand) and early communication (babbling) rather than the initial emergence of face recognition and sustained social gaze. *9 months* - Milestones at 9 months include advanced motor skills such as the development of the **pincer grasp** and standing while holding onto furniture, as well as complex communication like understanding simple commands. - While social interaction is highly sophisticated, the initial establishment of active face recognition and responsive engagement (the core of the scenario) occurs much earlier, typically by 3 months.

Q: A patient presents with lower right abdominal pain and rebound tenderness. Intraoperatively, an inflamed Meckel's diverticulum is found. This clinical presentation most closely mimics which condition?

Appendicitis. ***Appendicitis*** (Meckel's Diverticulitis Mimicking Appendicitis) - Inflammation of a Meckel's diverticulum (**Meckel's diverticulitis**) occurs in the right lower quadrant and is clinically indistinguishable from **acute appendicitis**. - Lower right abdominal pain and **rebound tenderness** are classic signs of localized **peritonitis** associated with inflammation of a structure near the ileocecal region. *Perforation* - Perforation causes signs of diffuse peritonitis, marked by generalized abdominal rigidity and severe systemic illness, rather than localized pain and rebound tenderness in the right lower quadrant. - It is generally a subsequent complication of severe diverticulitis, not the primary cause of this initial localized presentation. *Intestinal obstruction* - Obstruction due to Meckel's (e.g., intussusception or volvulus) presents with symptoms like **colicky pain**, abdominal distension, and **bilious vomiting**. - **Rebound tenderness** is not a primary feature unless the obstruction progresses to severe strangulation and localized ischemia. *Cholecystitis* - **Cholecystitis** is inflammation of the gallbladder, causing pain predominantly in the **right upper quadrant** or epigastrium, often linked to fatty meals. - This location is inconsistent with pain and rebound tenderness strictly localized to the **lower right abdomen**.

Question 1

A patient presents with loss of sensation on the posterior surface of the ear along with a lesion. Which structure is most likely involved?

Accepted Answer

Greater Auricular Nerve

Answer

External Carotid Artery

Answer

External Jugular Vein

Answer

Internal Jugular Vein

Question 2

A 35 y/o asthmatic patient is scheduled for a minor surgical procedure. Which induction agent and muscle relaxant combination is safest for this patient?

Accepted Answer

Ketamine and Vecuronium

Answer

Propofol and Succinylcholine

Answer

Ketamine and d-tubocurarine

Answer

Thiopental and Rocuronium

Question 3

Which of the following health programmes is supported by DANIDA?

Accepted Answer

Blindness

Answer

HIV

Answer

TB

Answer

Malaria

Question 4

Which of the following is the use of Shakir's tape?

Accepted Answer

Appropriate technology

Answer

Intersectoral coordination

Answer

Community participation

Answer

Equitable distribution

Question 5

A 30-year-old female presents with a painful red granular lesion on the vulva accompanied by bilateral lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Chancroid

Answer

Neisseria Gonorrhoeae Infection

Answer

Lymphogranuloma Venereum

Answer

Granuloma Inguinale

Question 6

A 29-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and a history of amenorrhea for 6 weeks. Transvaginal ultrasound does not show an intrauterine gestational sac or features suggestive of ectopic pregnancy. Her serum $\beta$-hCG is 1,200 IU/L, which is below the discriminatory zone. What is the next step in management?

Accepted Answer

Repeat $\beta$-hCG after 48 hours

Answer

Dilatation and curettage

Answer

Methotrexate therapy

Answer

Laparoscopy

Question 7

A 32 y/o pregnant woman presents for her routine antenatal check-up at 28 weeks gestation. She has a history of obesity but no previous history of diabetes. Her fasting plasma glucose level is 104 mg/dL, and her 2-hour plasma glucose level after a 75g Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT) is 167 mg/dL. Based on these findings, what is the most appropriate next step?

Accepted Answer

Diagnose her with GDM and initiate dietary modifications with close monitoring of blood glucose levels.

Answer

Start lifestyle modifications and repeat OGTT at 32 weeks gestation.

Answer

Monitor her closely without intervention since her glucose levels are borderline.

Answer

Diagnose her with pre-existing diabetes and initiate insulin therapy.

Question 8

All of the following are protected by OCPs except?

Accepted Answer

Carcinoma breast

Answer

Colonic cancer

Answer

Carcinoma endometrium

Answer

Ovarian cancer

Question 9

A mother brings her 5-month-old baby to the clinic for a routine pediatric check-up. The pediatrician observes that the baby actively looks at his mother's face and responds with interest as she talks to him, showing recognition and engagement. At what age is this developmental milestone typically first achieved?

Accepted Answer

3 months

Answer

9 months

Answer

2 months

Answer

6 months

Question 10

A patient presents with lower right abdominal pain and rebound tenderness. Intraoperatively, an inflamed Meckel's diverticulum is found. This clinical presentation most closely mimics which condition?

Accepted Answer

Appendicitis

Answer

Cholecystitis

Answer

Perforation

Answer

Intestinal obstruction

FMGE 2025

Anatomy

Anesthesiology

Community Medicine

Dermatology

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pediatrics

Surgery