FMGE 2025 - Internal Medicine Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following is associated with a Graham-Steel murmur?

Pulmonary regurgitation. Detailed heart murmur assessment is necessary for diagnosis. While early diastolic murmurs are typically associated with valvular regurgitation, the specific Graham-Steel murmur is a high-pitched, early diastolic decrescendo murmur heard best over the pulmonary area [1]. It is specifically caused by pulmonary regurgitation that develops secondary to severe pulmonary hypertension. Ventricular septal defect (VSD) typically causes a pansystolic (holosystolic) murmur heard at the left sternal border. While VSD can lead to severe pulmonary hypertension, the primary associated murmur related to the defect itself is holosystolic. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is characterized by a harsh, mid-systolic ejection murmur heard at the left sternal border or apex [1]. Aortic regurgitation also produces an early diastolic decrescendo murmur, often heard at the left sternal edge [2]. It is due to failure of the aortic valve and is distinct from the Graham-Steel murmur, which is tied to pulmonary hypertension.

Q: A patient with a history of throat infection presents with a water hammer pulse. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Rheumatic fever with aortic regurgitation. ***Rheumatic fever with aortic regurgitation***- The history of a preceding **streptococcal throat infection** suggests **Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF)**, which is the leading cause of acquired valvular heart disease globally.- **Aortic Regurgitation (AR)** is a common manifestation of rheumatic carditis [1] and characteristically presents with physical signs of high pulse pressure, such as the bounding, rapidly collapsing pulse known as the **water hammer pulse** (Corrigan's pulse) [2].*Infective endocarditis*- Although **infective endocarditis (IE)** can cause acute **Aortic Regurgitation (AR)** due to cusp destruction [3], the history of a preceding **throat infection** is a classic antecedent for **rheumatic fever**, not typical IE.- IE usually presents with fever, new murmur, and systemic emboli, often in patients with pre-existing valve disease or intravenous drug use.*Mitral stenosis*- **Mitral stenosis (MS)** results in decreased flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, which *does not* lead to wide pulse pressure.- It is characterized by a **loud S1**, **opening snap**, and **mid-diastolic rumble**; MS does not cause a water hammer pulse, which is specific to **Aortic Regurgitation**.*Aortic stenosis*- **Aortic stenosis (AS)** causes mechanical obstruction to left ventricular outflow, resulting in low pulse pressure and a small, slow-rising pulse (**pulsus parvus et tardus**) [4].- AS is hemodynamically the opposite of **Aortic Regurgitation**, and therefore highly unlikely to present with a wide pulse pressure or a **water hammer pulse**.

Q: Which of the following is the management of a HIV positive patient with multiple dog bites?

Rabies vaccine + Immunoglobulin + Wound management. ***Rabies vaccine + Immunoglobulin + Wound management***- **Category III exposure** (multiple/deep transmural bites) mandates both **Passive Immunization** (Human Rabies Immune Globulin - **HRIG**) and **Active Immunization** (**Rabies Vaccine**) for immediate and long-term protection [1].- Given the patient's **HIV-positive status**, they are considered **immunocompromised**; therefore, the highest level of post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is required to ensure adequate viral neutralization and immune response.*Rabies vaccine + wound management*- This regimen is inadequate for **Category III exposure** because it omits **Rabies Immunoglobulin (RIG)**, which provides immediate, neutralizing antibodies before the vaccine takes effect [1].- Omitting RIG is particularly dangerous in an **immunocompromised patient** as the onset of antibody production from the vaccine may be delayed or suboptimal.*Immunoglobulin only*- **Rabies Immunoglobulin (RIG)** provides vital passive immunity but its effects are short-lived, offering only temporary protection.- Effective rabies prevention requires the simultaneous administration of the **active vaccine** series to stimulate sustained, long-term protective antibody production [1].*Wound management*- While essential for reducing local bacterial infections and viral load, **wound management alone** is never sufficient for managing **Category III rabies exposure**.- This option neglects both the immediate (RIG) and subsequent (Vaccine) specific measures required to prevent the invariably fatal neurological disease caused by the **Rabies virus**.

Q: A patient is diagnosed with Cryptococcal meningitis. What is the treatment?

Flucytosine + L.Amp. ***Correct: Flucytosine + L.Amp (Liposomal Amphotericin B)*** - This is the **standard induction therapy** for Cryptococcal meningitis as per WHO and CDC guidelines [1] - **Combination therapy** is superior to monotherapy, reducing mortality and improving outcomes [1] - The induction phase lasts **2 weeks**, followed by consolidation with fluconazole [1] - Liposomal Amphotericin B has **better CNS penetration** and fewer nephrotoxic effects compared to conventional Amphotericin B - Flucytosine enhances fungicidal activity and reduces the risk of resistance [1] *Incorrect: L.Amp alone* - Monotherapy with Amphotericin B is **less effective** than combination therapy [1] - Higher rates of treatment failure and relapse when used alone - Should always be combined with flucytosine when available [1] *Incorrect: Fluconazole alone* - Fluconazole is used in **consolidation phase** (after induction) and maintenance therapy - **Not recommended for induction** due to its fungistatic (not fungicidal) action - Slower CSF sterilization compared to combination therapy *Incorrect: Flucytosine alone* - **Never used as monotherapy** due to rapid development of resistance - Must always be combined with Amphotericin B or Azoles - Has good CSF penetration but inadequate as sole agent

Q: A 23-year-old female visited the clinician with a solitary thyroid nodule and was advised for thyroid function tests where TSH level is 27.3 mU/L, T3 is 1.24 ng/mL, and T4 is 4.87 μg/dL. Which of the following manifestations is true regarding the condition?

Weight gain. ***Weight gain***- The patient's thyroid function tests (TFTs), showing a **highly elevated TSH** (27.3 mU/L) and **low T4** (4.87 μg/dL), confirm a diagnosis of **Primary Hypothyroidism** [1].- Weight gain is a classic symptom of hypothyroidism, resulting from reduced **basal metabolic rate** and frequently accompanied by **fluid retention** leading to *myxedema* [2]. *Heat intolerance*- Heat intolerance is a characteristic feature of **Hyperthyroidism**, where excess thyroid hormone increases heat production.- Patients with hypothyroidism typically experience **cold intolerance** due to decreased thermogenesis [2]. *Tachycardia*- **Tachycardia** (increased heart rate) is a common cardiovascular manifestation of **Hyperthyroidism** due to enhanced adrenergic effects [2].- Hypothyroidism generally leads to **bradycardia** (slow heart rate) and reduced cardiac contractility [2]. *Diarrhea*- Diarrhea is associated with **Hyperthyroidism** because of increased gastrointestinal motility.- Patients suffering from hypothyroidism commonly present with decreased bowel motility, leading to **constipation** [2].

Q: A 60 y/o male suddenly experiences an intense headache, described as the worst headache of his life, followed by vomiting and photophobia. O/E he has neck stiffness and a dilated pupil on the right side. A CT scan reveals bleeding in the subarachnoid space. Which of the following is the most common cause of this condition?

Intracranial aneurysm. ***Intracranial aneurysm***- Rupture of an intracranial **saccular (berry) aneurysm** accounts for approximately 85% of all non-traumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) cases, making it the most common cause [2].- The classic presentation of the **"worst headache of his life"** (thunderclap headache), meningismus (**neck stiffness**), and potential Third nerve palsy (dilated pupil due to compression) are highly suggestive of aneurysmal SAH [1].*Hypertension*- Uncontrolled **chronic hypertension** is the leading cause of non-traumatic **intraparenchymal hemorrhage (ICH)**, typically affecting deep brain structures like the basal ganglia.- While hypertension is a major risk factor for SAH, it is not the primary mechanism of bleeding; the rupture of an aneurysm is the direct immediate cause [1].*Arteriovenous malformation (AVM)*- AVMs are abnormal connections that can rupture, causing hemorrhagic stroke, but they are the second most common cause of SAH, accounting for less than 10% of cases.- AVM rupture often leads to a combination of **intraparenchymal hemorrhage** and SAH, and they are typically associated with younger patients.*Brain tumour*- Tumors rarely cause acute, massive SAH; when they bleed, it typically occurs within the tumor mass itself (**intratumoral hemorrhage**).- The clinical presentation usually involves subacute onset of symptoms and progressive focal neurological deficits, rather than the sudden, dramatic thunderclap headache characteristic of SAH [1].

Q: A patient presents with unilateral throbbing pain, photophobia, nausea, and vomiting. The symptoms improve after taking sumatriptan. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Migraine. ***Migraine*** - The presentation of **unilateral**, **throbbing pain** combined with associated symptoms like **photophobia**, **nausea**, and **vomiting** constitutes the classic criteria for migraine [1]. - Dramatic symptomatic relief after taking **sumatriptan** (a **triptan**) is highly characteristic, as these drugs are specific abortive treatments for acute **migraine** attacks. *Tension headache* - This headache is typically **bilateral**, described as a **tightening** or **band-like** pressure, and is non-throbbing [1]. - It usually lacks associated features such as **nausea**, **vomiting**, or severe photophobia, and does not typically respond well to triptans. *Cluster headache* - While also highly painful and unilateral, cluster headaches are characterized by **excruciating, non-throbbing** pain, often localized to the **periorbital** or retro-orbital region [1]. - Key associated features are **autonomic**, including ipsilateral **lacrimation**, ptosis, miosis, and rhinorrhea, features not mentioned in this presentation. *Sinus headache* - This diagnosis is associated with symptoms of **sinusitis**, such as facial pressure, pain over the sinuses, fever, and purulent nasal discharge. - The pain is usually localized to the **maxillary** or **frontal** regions and is not typically a severe, throbbing pain that uniquely responds to triptans.

Q: A patient with a history of pneumonia develops pleural effusion. What is the expected finding in the pleural analysis for a complicated parapneumonic effusion?

Pleural pH less than 7.2. ***Pleural pH less than 7.2***- This finding is the critical biochemical parameter defining a **complicated parapneumonic effusion** or **empyema** [1].- The low pH results from high local acid production (lactic acid, CO2) due to bacterial metabolism and inflammatory cell activity, which strongly indicates the need for **chest tube drainage** [1].*Pleural protein/plasma protein ratio less than 0.5*- This ratio is characteristic of a **transudative pleural effusion** (e.g., heart failure or nephrotic syndrome).- Parapneumonic effusions are inflammatory processes that result in **exudative effusions**, where this ratio is typically greater than 0.5 according to **Light’s criteria** [1].*Pleural LDH less than 2/3rd of plasma LDH*- High pleural fluid LDH is a key feature of an **exudative effusion**; therefore, LDH levels would generally be expected to be higher than this threshold in a parapneumonic effusion.- The standard Light's criteria dictate that pleural LDH must be greater than 2/3rds the upper limit of normal serum LDH for an effusion to be classified as an **exudate** [1].*Pleural LDH less than 0.6 of plasma LDH*- In an exudative process like a parapneumonic effusion, the pleural fluid LDH to serum LDH ratio is expected to be **greater than 0.6**.- A ratio less than 0.6 is characteristic of a **transudative effusion**.

Question 1

Which factor is most useful for distinguishing Acute Kidney Injury (AKI) from Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD)?

Accepted Answer

Albumin levels

Answer

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

Answer

Urinary output

Answer

Creatinine levels

Question 2

Which of the following is associated with a Graham-Steel murmur?

Accepted Answer

Pulmonary regurgitation

Answer

Aortic regurgitation

Answer

Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM)

Answer

Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

Question 3

A patient with a history of throat infection presents with a water hammer pulse. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Rheumatic fever with aortic regurgitation

Answer

Infective endocarditis

Answer

Aortic stenosis

Answer

Mitral stenosis

Question 4

Which of the following is the management of a HIV positive patient with multiple dog bites?

Accepted Answer

Rabies vaccine + Immunoglobulin + Wound management

Answer

Immunoglobulin only

Answer

Wound management

Answer

Rabies vaccine + wound management

Question 5

A patient is diagnosed with Cryptococcal meningitis. What is the treatment?

Accepted Answer

Flucytosine + L.Amp

Answer

L.Amp

Answer

Fluconazole

Answer

Flucytosine

Question 6

A 23-year-old female visited the clinician with a solitary thyroid nodule and was advised for thyroid function tests where TSH level is 27.3 mU/L, T3 is 1.24 ng/mL, and T4 is 4.87 μg/dL. Which of the following manifestations is true regarding the condition?

Accepted Answer

Weight gain

Answer

Diarrhea

Answer

Tachycardia

Answer

Heat intolerance

Question 7

A 60 y/o male suddenly experiences an intense headache, described as the worst headache of his life, followed by vomiting and photophobia. O/E he has neck stiffness and a dilated pupil on the right side. A CT scan reveals bleeding in the subarachnoid space. Which of the following is the most common cause of this condition?

Accepted Answer

Intracranial aneurysm

Answer

Hypertension

Answer

Brain tumour

Answer

Arteriovenous malformation (AVM)

Question 8

A patient presents with unilateral throbbing pain, photophobia, nausea, and vomiting. The symptoms improve after taking sumatriptan. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Migraine

Answer

Cluster headache

Answer

Sinus headache

Answer

Tension headache

Question 9

A patient with a history of pneumonia develops pleural effusion. What is the expected finding in the pleural analysis for a complicated parapneumonic effusion?

Accepted Answer

Pleural pH less than 7.2

Answer

Pleural LDH less than 0.6 of plasma LDH

Answer

Pleural protein/plasma protein ratio less than 0.5

Answer

Pleural LDH less than 2/3rd of plasma LDH

Question 10

A 65-year-old male with chronic stable angina presents with worsening chest pain during routine activities. His current medications include aspirin, clopidogrel, metoprolol, and atorvastatin, but his symptoms persist. ECG shows ST-segment depression in V5-V6, and coronary angiography reveals 80% stenosis of the left anterior descending (LAD) artery. What is the most appropriate intervention?

Accepted Answer

Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) with drug-eluting stent (DES)

Answer

Add ranolazine to medical therapy

Answer

Increase the dose of beta-blockers

Answer

Refer for coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG)

FMGE 2025 — Internal Medicine