Reproductive Physiology Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following statements regarding events related to oogenesis is false?

First polar body is released prior to ovulation.. ***First polar body is released prior to ovulation - FALSE*** - This statement is **false** because the first polar body is released **during ovulation**, not prior to it. - The LH surge triggers the completion of **meiosis I**, which results in the formation of the secondary oocyte and the first polar body. - This process occurs **at the time of ovulation** (within hours of ovulation), not significantly before it. - The secondary oocyte (arrested in metaphase II) is what is actually ovulated along with the first polar body already extruded. *LH surge occurs 24-48 hrs. prior to ovulation - TRUE* - The **LH surge** peaks approximately **24-36 hours before ovulation**. - This surge triggers the final maturation of the oocyte and completion of meiosis I. - The timing is crucial for the coordination of ovulation. *Meiosis-II is not a reduction division - TRUE* - This statement is **true** because meiosis II is an **equational division**. - It involves separation of sister chromatids (similar to mitosis), not reduction in chromosome number. - The reduction division occurs in **meiosis I** (diploid → haploid). - Meiosis II maintains the haploid number established in meiosis I. *Primary oocyte is arrested at prophase-I at birth - TRUE* - **Primary oocytes** are formed during fetal development and enter **prophase I of meiosis I**. - They remain arrested at the **diplotene stage of prophase I** from fetal life until puberty. - This arrest is maintained until the LH surge triggers resumption of meiosis in selected follicles during each menstrual cycle.

Q: In a young female of reproductive age with a regular menstrual cycle of 28 days, ovulation occurs around the 14th day of the period. When is the first polar body extruded?

Accompanied by ovulation. ***Accompanied by ovulation*** - The **first meiotic division** is completed just prior to or with ovulation, extruding the **first polar body**. - This process transitions the oocyte from a primary to a **secondary oocyte**, making it ready for fertilization. *24 hours prior to ovulation* - The first polar body extrusion typically occurs very close to the moment of ovulation, not a full 24 hours before. - The **LH surge** triggers the completion of meiosis I, leading to polar body extrusion and ovulation. *48 hours after the ovulation* - By 48 hours post-ovulation, if fertilization has not occurred, the **oocyte begins to degenerate**. - Extrusion of the first polar body occurs much earlier, at the time of ovulation itself. *At the time of fertilization* - At the time of fertilization, the **second meiotic division** is completed, leading to the extrusion of the **second polar body**. - The first polar body is extruded much earlier, when the oocyte is released from the ovary.

Q: What is the mechanism by which hyperprolactinemia causes amenorrhea?

Inhibition of GnRH pulse secretion. ***Inhibition of GnRH pulse secretion*** - **Hyperprolactinemia** directly inhibits the pulsatile release of **gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)** from the hypothalamus. - This disruption of GnRH pulsatility subsequently impairs the release of **luteinizing hormone (LH)** and **follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)** from the pituitary, leading to **anovulation** and **amenorrhea**. *Inhibition of adrenal steroidogenesis* - High prolactin levels do not primarily inhibit **adrenal steroidogenesis**; instead, they interfere with the **hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal (HPG)** axis. - Adrenal steroidogenesis largely involves the production of **androgens**, **glucocorticoids**, and **mineralocorticoids**, which is a separate endocrine pathway. *It causes hypogonadotropic hypogonadism* - While **hyperprolactinemia** *does* lead to **hypogonadotropic hypogonadism**, this option describes the *result* or *consequence* rather than the specific *mechanism* of how it causes amenorrhea. - The fundamental mechanism involves the direct disruption of **GnRH pulsatility** at the hypothalamic level, which then leads to the reduced secretion of gonadotropins. *It leads to decreased ovarian function due to low FSH and LH levels.* - This statement is a downstream effect, not the primary mechanism, just like the previous option. **Low FSH and LH levels** are indeed caused by the initial inhibition of GnRH. - **Decreased ovarian function** is a direct consequence of insufficient **gonadotropin stimulation**, preventing follicular development and estrogen production, which ultimately results in amenorrhea.

Q: After ejaculation, how long does it typically take for semen to liquefy?

30 minutes. ***30 minutes*** - Semen undergoes a process called **liquefaction** after ejaculation, transforming from a coagulum into a liquid state. - This process is essential for **sperm motility** and **typically completes within 30 minutes** after collection. - While the normal range is 15-60 minutes, **30 minutes represents the typical/expected time** for complete liquefaction in standard semen analysis. *20 minutes* - While liquefaction begins shortly after ejaculation, 20 minutes is typically **too short** for complete liquefaction in most samples. - Incomplete liquefaction within this timeframe might suggest an underlying issue, though it's still within the early part of the normal range. *25 minutes* - Similar to 20 minutes, 25 minutes is generally **not sufficient time** for full liquefaction to be reliably complete in most normal semen samples. - While some samples may liquefy by this time, it is **not the typical timeframe** used as the standard reference. *35 minutes* - Although 35 minutes is still **within the normal range** (15-60 minutes), it is **not the typical time** referenced in standard semen analysis protocols. - The question asks for the **typical time**, which is **30 minutes**, not the outer limits of the normal range. - Liquefaction times consistently exceeding 60 minutes are considered **abnormal** and can affect fertility assessment.

Q: Which of the following cells are the target site for follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) action?

Granulosa cells. ***Granulosa cells*** - **FSH** acts on **granulosa cells** in the ovarian follicle, stimulating their proliferation and differentiation. - This action is crucial for **follicle development** and the production of **estrogen** by these cells, particularly through the **aromatase** enzyme. *Theca interna* - **Theca interna** cells are primarily stimulated by **luteinizing hormone (LH)**, not FSH. - They produce **androgens** (e.g., androstenedione) which are then converted to estrogen by granulosa cells. *Endometrium* - The **endometrium** is the inner lining of the uterus and is primarily responsive to **estrogen** and **progesterone**, which prepare it for implantation. - It does not have direct **FSH receptors** or synthesize reproductive hormones in response to FSH. *Myometrium* - The **myometrium** is the muscular wall of the uterus, responsible for contractions. - Its activity is regulated by hormones like **oxytocin** and **prostaglandins**, and it is not a direct target for **FSH**.

Question 1

Which of the following statements regarding events related to oogenesis is false?

Accepted Answer

First polar body is released prior to ovulation.

Answer

Meiosis-II is not a reduction division

Answer

LH surge occurs 24-48 hrs. prior to ovulation

Answer

Primary oocyte is arrested at prophase - I at birth.

Question 2

In a young female of reproductive age with a regular menstrual cycle of 28 days, ovulation occurs around the 14th day of the period. When is the first polar body extruded?

Accepted Answer

Accompanied by ovulation

Answer

24 hours prior to ovulation

Answer

48 hours after the ovulation

Answer

At the time of fertilization

Question 3

What is the mechanism by which hyperprolactinemia causes amenorrhea?

Accepted Answer

Inhibition of GnRH pulse secretion

Answer

Inhibition of adrenal steroidogenesis

Answer

It causes hypogonadotropic hypogonadism

Answer

It leads to decreased ovarian function due to low FSH and LH levels

Question 4

After ejaculation, how long does it typically take for semen to liquefy?

Accepted Answer

30 minutes

Answer

35 minutes

Answer

20 minutes

Answer

25 minutes

Question 5

Which of the following cells are the target site for follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) action?

Accepted Answer

Granulosa cells

Answer

Theca interna

Answer

Endometrium

Answer

Myometrium

Reproductive Physiology — MCQs

Reproductive Physiology — MCQs

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