Anticancer Drugs Practice Questions

Q: Cyclophosphamide is used in all of the following conditions except?

Choriocarcinoma. **Explanation:** **Cyclophosphamide** is a nitrogen mustard and a potent **alkylating agent**. It acts as a cell cycle non-specific drug by cross-linking DNA strands, primarily at the N7 position of guanine. **Why Choriocarcinoma is the correct answer:** The drug of choice for **Choriocarcinoma** is **Methotrexate** (an antimetabolite) or **Actinomycin D** (an antitumor antibiotic). Cyclophosphamide is not part of the standard primary treatment protocols (like EMA-CO) for gestational trophoblastic neoplasia. While it may be used in refractory cases, it is not a conventional or first-line indication compared to the other options listed. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Burkitt’s Lymphoma:** Cyclophosphamide is highly effective and is a cornerstone of treatment for this high-grade B-cell lymphoma. * **Hodgkin’s Lymphoma:** It is a key component of the **BEACOPP** regimen used in advanced stages of Hodgkin’s disease. * **Ovarian Carcinoma:** It is frequently used in combination with platinum compounds (like Cisplatin or Carboplatin) for the treatment of epithelial ovarian cancers. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Acrolein Toxicity:** Cyclophosphamide is a prodrug activated by CYP450. Its metabolite, **Acrolein**, causes **Hemorrhagic Cystitis**. 2. **Prevention:** Hemorrhagic cystitis is prevented by aggressive hydration and **MESNA** (2-Mercaptoethane sulfonate), which neutralizes acrolein in the bladder. 3. **Other Side Effects:** It is notorious for causing **SIADH** (dilutional hyponatremia) and permanent sterility (premature ovarian failure/azoospermia). 4. **Non-Oncology Use:** It is the drug of choice for **Wegener’s Granulomatosis** (Granulomatosis with polyangiitis).

Q: What is the drug of choice for Hairy cell leukemia?

Cladribine. **Explanation:** **Cladribine (2-CdA)** is the drug of choice for Hairy Cell Leukemia (HCL). It is a **purine nucleoside analog** that mimics adenosine. Its efficacy lies in its resistance to degradation by adenosine deaminase (ADA). Once inside the cell, it is phosphorylated into its active triphosphate form, which incorporates into DNA, leading to DNA strand breaks and apoptosis. Because HCL cells have high levels of deoxycytidine kinase and low levels of 5'-nucleotidase, the drug accumulates preferentially in these malignant cells, leading to high remission rates with a single continuous infusion. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Methotrexate:** A folate antagonist that inhibits dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR). It is primarily used in ALL, choriocarcinoma, and ectopic pregnancy, but is not effective for HCL. * **B. Gemcitabine:** A pyrimidine analog (cytidine analog) used mainly for solid tumors like pancreatic, lung, and bladder cancers. * **C. Decitabine:** A hypomethylating agent used in Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MDS) and AML, not HCL. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Pentostatin:** Another purine analog (ADA inhibitor) that is also highly effective for HCL but is generally considered second-line to Cladribine. * **BRAF V600E Mutation:** This is the hallmark genetic mutation found in nearly all cases of Hairy Cell Leukemia. * **Diagnosis:** Look for "dry tap" on bone marrow aspiration and "fried egg appearance" on biopsy. * **Alternative:** **Vemurafenib** (BRAF inhibitor) is used for relapsed/refractory cases.

Q: Midostaurin is a new drug used for the treatment of which of the following conditions?

Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML). **Explanation:** **Midostaurin** is a multi-targeted kinase inhibitor that primarily acts by inhibiting the **FLT3 (Fms-like tyrosine kinase 3)** receptor. FLT3 mutations (specifically internal tandem duplications, FLT3-ITD) are present in approximately 30% of patients with **Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)** and are associated with a poor prognosis. Midostaurin, when used in combination with standard induction (cytarabine and daunorubicin) and consolidation chemotherapy, significantly improves overall survival in FLT3-mutation-positive AML patients. **Analysis of Options:** * **A. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML):** The mainstay of treatment for CML is BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase inhibitors like **Imatinib**, Dasatinib, or Nilotinib. Midostaurin does not target the Philadelphia chromosome. * **B. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL):** Treatment involves complex regimens (e.g., Vincristine, Steroids, L-Asparaginase). While some ALL cases are Ph+, they are treated with BCR-ABL inhibitors, not Midostaurin. * **D. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL):** CLL management typically involves BTK inhibitors (Ibrutinib), BCL-2 inhibitors (Venetoclax), or anti-CD20 monoclonal antibodies (Rituximab). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Mechanism:** Multi-kinase inhibitor (FLT3, KIT, PKC, and VEGFR). * **Other Indications:** Apart from AML, Midostaurin is also FDA-approved for **Advanced Systemic Mastocytosis** (targeting the KIT mutation). * **Side Effects:** Most common include nausea, vomiting, febrile neutropenia, and potential QTc prolongation. * **FLT3 Inhibitors:** Other drugs in this class include **Gilteritinib** (selective for FLT3) and **Sorafenib**.

Q: Which of the following drug classes is known to cause sterility?

Alkylating agents. **Explanation:** **Alkylating agents** (e.g., Cyclophosphamide, Busulfan, Procarbazine) are the most common class of antineoplastics associated with **gonadal toxicity and permanent sterility**. These drugs are cell-cycle non-specific and work by forming covalent bonds with DNA, leading to cross-linking and strand breaks. Because they target rapidly dividing cells, they significantly damage the germinal epithelium of the testes (causing oligospermia/azoospermia) and the ovarian follicles (leading to premature ovarian failure). The risk is dose-dependent and higher in post-pubertal patients. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Vinca Alkaloids (e.g., Vincristine):** These are M-phase specific drugs that inhibit microtubule polymerization. Their primary dose-limiting toxicity is **neurotoxicity** (peripheral neuropathy) rather than permanent sterility. * **Antimetabolites (e.g., Methotrexate, 5-FU):** These S-phase specific drugs interfere with DNA synthesis. While they can cause transient infertility during treatment, they are rarely associated with permanent gonadal failure compared to alkylating agents. * **Actinomycin D:** An antitumor antibiotic that intercalates into DNA. Its major toxicities include bone marrow suppression and GI upset, but it is not a classic cause of permanent sterility. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Busulfan:** Specifically known for causing "Busulfan Lung" (pulmonary fibrosis) and severe marrow suppression before bone marrow transplant. * **Cyclophosphamide:** Associated with **Hemorrhagic Cystitis** (prevented by **MESNA** and hydration). * **Procarbazine:** Has high leukemogenic potential and can cause a **Disulfiram-like reaction** with alcohol. * **Ovarian protection:** GnRH agonists are sometimes used during chemotherapy to "quiet" the ovaries and reduce the risk of premature menopause.

Q: Which of the following drugs is NOT commonly used in the treatment of Non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

Cisplatin. **Explanation:** The standard first-line treatment for most types of Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL), particularly Diffuse Large B-Cell Lymphoma (DLBCL), is the **CHOP** or **R-CHOP** regimen. **Why Cisplatin is the Correct Answer:** While **Cisplatin** is a potent platinum-based alkylating agent, it is **not** part of the standard primary induction therapy for NHL. It is typically reserved for **salvage therapy** (e.g., DHAP or ESHAP regimens) in patients with relapsed or refractory disease. In contrast, the drugs listed in options A, B, and C are the core components of the standard frontline CHOP regimen. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Cyclophosphamide (C):** An alkylating agent (nitrogen mustard) that forms DNA cross-links. It is the "C" in CHOP. * **Doxorubicin (H):** An anthracycline antibiotic (Hydroxydaunorubicin) that inhibits Topoisomerase II and generates free radicals. It is the "H" in CHOP. * **Vincristine (O):** A vinca alkaloid that inhibits microtubule polymerization (Oncovin). It is the "O" in CHOP. * *(Note: The "P" in CHOP stands for Prednisolone).* **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **R-CHOP:** The addition of **Rituximab** (anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody) has significantly improved survival in CD20+ B-cell lymphomas. * **Dose-Limiting Toxicities:** * **Cyclophosphamide:** Hemorrhagic cystitis (prevented by **MESNA**). * **Doxorubicin:** Cardiotoxicity (dilated cardiomyopathy). * **Vincristine:** Peripheral neuropathy (areflexia/paresthesia) and paralytic ileus. * **Cisplatin:** Nephrotoxicity and Ototoxicity. * **Burkitt Lymphoma:** Often requires more intensive regimens like Hyper-CVAD rather than standard CHOP.

Q: All of the following are true about rituximab except?

Dose-independent pharmacokinetics. **Explanation:** Rituximab is a landmark therapeutic agent in oncology and rheumatology. The correct answer is **D** because Rituximab exhibits **dose-dependent (non-linear) pharmacokinetics**, not dose-independent. Its clearance is influenced by the "tumor burden"; as CD-20 receptors are saturated and B-cells are depleted, the clearance rate decreases and the half-life increases. **Analysis of Options:** * **Option A (True):** Rituximab is a **chimeric** (mouse/human) monoclonal antibody. It specifically targets the **CD-20 antigen** found on the surface of normal and malignant B-lymphocytes. * **Option B (True):** The **most common side effect** is an **infusion-related reaction** (fever, chills, rigors), typically occurring during the first infusion due to cytokine release. Pre-medication with acetaminophen and antihistamines is standard practice. * **Option C (True):** Rituximab holds the historical distinction of being the **first monoclonal antibody approved by the FDA (1997)** for the treatment of cancer, specifically for relapsed or refractory low-grade B-cell non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Mechanism of Action:** Causes B-cell lysis via Antibody-Dependent Cellular Cytotoxicity (ADCC), Complement-Dependent Cytotoxicity (CDC), and apoptosis. 2. **Major Risk:** It can cause **Reactivation of Hepatitis B**. Screening for HBsAg and anti-HBc is mandatory before starting therapy. 3. **Rare but Fatal Side Effect:** Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML) due to JC virus reactivation. 4. **Clinical Uses:** NHL, CLL, Rheumatoid Arthritis (refractory to TNF inhibitors), Wegener’s Granulomatosis, and Pemphigus Vulgaris.

Q: Which of the following anticancer drugs has a high emetogenic potential?

Cisplatin. **Explanation:** **Cisplatin** is the correct answer because it is classified as a **highly emetogenic** chemotherapy agent (Level 5, >90% frequency of emesis without prophylaxis). The underlying mechanism involves the release of serotonin (5-HT) from enterochromaffin cells in the GI tract and the stimulation of the Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone (CTZ) in the area postrema. Due to its high emetic potential, patients receiving Cisplatin require aggressive prophylactic antiemetic therapy, typically a "triple regimen" consisting of a 5-HT3 antagonist (e.g., Ondansetron), a NK1 receptor antagonist (e.g., Aprepitant), and Dexamethasone. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Chlorambucil (A):** An alkylating agent used primarily in CLL. It is administered orally and has **low emetogenic potential**. * **Vincristine (B):** A vinca alkaloid that inhibits microtubule assembly. It is notorious for peripheral neuropathy but has **minimal emetogenic potential**. * **6-Mercaptopurine (C):** A purine antimetabolite used in ALL maintenance therapy. It is associated with bone marrow suppression and hepatotoxicity but has **low emetogenic potential**. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Cisplatin Toxicity Profile:** Remember the "3 Ns"—**N**ephrotoxicity (prevented by aggressive hydration/Amifostine), **N**eurotoxicity (peripheral neuropathy), and **N**ausea/Vomiting (highly emetogenic). It also causes **Ototoxicity** (high-frequency hearing loss). * **Highly Emetogenic Drugs:** Apart from Cisplatin, other high-risk drugs include Cyclophosphamide (>1500 mg/m²), Dacarbazine, and Anthracycline/Cyclophosphamide combinations (AC regimen). * **Drug of Choice for Cisplatin-induced vomiting:** 5-HT3 antagonists (Ondansetron) are the mainstay for acute emesis, while Aprepitant is preferred for delayed emesis.

Q: All of the following anticancer drugs are cell cycle non-specific except?

Vincristine. ### Explanation The classification of anticancer drugs based on cell cycle kinetics is a high-yield topic for NEET-PG. Drugs are categorized into **Cell Cycle Specific (CCS)** agents, which act on specific phases (e.g., M or S phase), and **Cell Cycle Non-Specific (CCNS)** agents, which act on both resting and dividing cells. **Why Vincristine is the Correct Answer:** Vincristine is a **Vinca alkaloid** that acts specifically during the **M-phase (Mitosis)**. It binds to tubulin and inhibits its polymerization into microtubules, preventing the formation of the mitotic spindle. This leads to mitotic arrest in metaphase. Since it targets a specific phase, it is a **Cell Cycle Specific (CCS)** drug. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Cisplatin (Option A):** A platinum coordination complex that cross-links DNA. It is **CCNS**, although it shows maximum toxicity during the G1 and S phases. * **Mitomycin-C (Option C):** An antitumor antibiotic that acts as an alkylating agent. It is **CCNS** and is particularly effective against hypoxic tumor cells. * **Cyclophosphamide (Option D):** An alkylating agent (nitrogen mustard) that causes DNA cross-linking. Alkylating agents are the classic examples of **CCNS** drugs because they damage DNA regardless of the cell cycle stage. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **CCS Drugs:** Remember the mnemonic **"M-S-G"**: **M**-phase (Vincas, Taxanes), **S**-phase (Antimetabolites like Methotrexate, 5-FU), and **G2**-phase (Bleomycin). * **CCNS Drugs:** Alkylating agents, Platinum compounds, and Anthracyclines (Doxorubicin). * **Vincristine Side Effect:** Distinctive for **peripheral neuropathy** (paresthesia, loss of reflexes) and **constipation** (paralytic ileus), but notably **bone marrow sparing**.

Q: Bevacizumab is used for the treatment of which carcinoma?

Breast. **Explanation:** **Bevacizumab** is a recombinant humanized monoclonal antibody that acts as a potent **VEGF (Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor) inhibitor**. It binds to circulating VEGF-A, preventing it from interacting with its receptors (VEGFR-1 and VEGFR-2) on the surface of endothelial cells. This inhibits **angiogenesis** (the formation of new blood vessels), thereby "starving" the tumor of the blood supply necessary for growth and metastasis. 1. **Why Breast Carcinoma is correct:** Bevacizumab is FDA-approved and widely used in the management of **metastatic HER2-negative breast cancer**, typically in combination with chemotherapy (like paclitaxel). It helps in delaying disease progression by limiting the tumor's vascular network. 2. **Why other options are incorrect:** While Bevacizumab is used in several solid tumors (Colorectal, Renal Cell, and Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer), in the context of this specific question and standard NEET-PG patterns, **Breast Cancer** is a primary indication. While it is used in Lung cancer, it is specifically for *non-squamous* NSCLC; however, Breast cancer remains a classic textbook association for this drug's clinical utility. It is not a standard first-line treatment for Gastric (Stomach) carcinoma (where Trastuzumab or Ramucirumab are more commonly discussed). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Mechanism:** Angiogenesis inhibitor (Anti-VEGF). * **Adverse Effects:** The most characteristic side effects are **Hypertension**, **Proteinuria**, impaired wound healing, and increased risk of gastrointestinal perforation/hemorrhage. * **Other Indications:** Metastatic colorectal cancer (first-line), Glioblastoma multiforme, and Age-related Macular Degeneration (off-label/intravitreal). * **Contraindication:** It should be avoided for at least 28 days before or after elective surgery due to wound healing complications.

Question 1

Cyclophosphamide is used in all of the following conditions except?

Accepted Answer

Choriocarcinoma

Answer

Burkitt's lymphoma

Answer

Hodgkin's lymphoma

Answer

Ovarian carcinoma

Question 2

What is the drug of choice for Hairy cell leukemia?

Accepted Answer

Cladribine

Answer

Methotrexate

Answer

Gemcitabine

Answer

Decitabine

Question 3

Midostaurin is a new drug used for the treatment of which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)

Answer

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)

Answer

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)

Answer

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)

Question 4

Which of the following drug classes is known to cause sterility?

Accepted Answer

Alkylating agents

Answer

Vinca alkaloids

Answer

Antimetabolites

Answer

Actinomycin D

Question 5

Which of the following drugs is NOT commonly used in the treatment of Non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

Accepted Answer

Cisplatin

Answer

Doxorubicin

Answer

Cyclophosphamide

Answer

Vincristine

Question 6

All of the following are true about rituximab except?

Accepted Answer

Dose-independent pharmacokinetics

Answer

Chimeric monoclonal antibody against CD-20 B cell antigen

Answer

Most common side effect is infusion reaction

Answer

First FDA drug approved for resistant lymphomas

Question 7

Which of the following anticancer drugs has a high emetogenic potential?

Accepted Answer

Cisplatin

Answer

Chlorambucil

Answer

Vincristine

Answer

6-Mercaptopurine

Question 8

All of the following anticancer drugs are cell cycle non-specific except?

Accepted Answer

Vincristine

Answer

Cisplatin

Answer

Mitomycin-C

Answer

Cyclophosphamide

Question 9

Bevacizumab is used for the treatment of which carcinoma?

Accepted Answer

Breast

Answer

Stomach

Answer

Lung

Answer

None of the above

Question 10

A 56-year-old female presented with breast carcinoma and was prescribed herceptin (trastuzumab). Which of the following statements regarding this drug is true?

Accepted Answer

It is a monoclonal antibody produced by injecting the HER2 antigen.

Answer

It is an antibody produced entirely from mice, containing no human component.

Answer

Injection of herceptin increases the antibody response.

Answer

The protein HER2/Neu is expressed in increased amounts by breast cancer cells.

Anticancer Drugs — MCQs

Anticancer Drugs — MCQs

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