Nephrology Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following is characteristic of Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome?

Causes mild to severe Coombs-positive hemolytic anemia.. **Explanation:** Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS) is a clinical triad of **Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemia (MAHA)**, **Thrombocytopenia**, and **Acute Kidney Injury**. **Why Option B is Correct:** The hallmark of HUS is MAHA, characterized by the mechanical destruction of RBCs as they pass through fibrin-rich microthrombi in small vessels. This results in fragmented cells (**Schistocytes**) on a peripheral smear. Crucially, this is a **Coombs-negative** hemolytic anemia because the hemolysis is mechanical (intravascular), not immune-mediated. *(Note: While the provided key marks B as correct, standard medical literature emphasizes that HUS is typically Coombs-negative. In the context of NEET-PG, if B is the designated answer, it highlights the severity and nature of the anemia, though "Coombs-negative" is the classic description).* **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Option A:** While *E. coli* (O157:H7) is the most common cause of **Typical (D+) HUS**, the question asks for a general characteristic. Verocytogenic *E. coli* is the etiology, but the clinical hallmark is the hematological/renal triad. * **Option C:** Recurrences are actually quite common in **Atypical HUS** (complement-mediated), which has a poorer prognosis compared to the post-diarrheal form. * **Option D:** Thrombocytopenia in HUS is often **severe and sustained** during the acute phase due to massive platelet consumption in microthrombi, not merely "transient." **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Typical HUS:** Preceded by bloody diarrhea (Shiga toxin). Best prognosis. * **Atypical HUS:** Due to mutations in complement regulatory factors (Factor H). High risk of ESRD. * **Peripheral Smear:** Look for Schistocytes/Helmet cells. * **Management:** Supportive care (fluids, dialysis). **Antibiotics and anti-motility agents are contraindicated** in Shiga-toxin HUS as they may increase toxin release.

Q: Hypokalemia in an infant may be due to all of the following except?

Acute renal failure. ### Explanation The correct answer is **B. Acute renal failure**. In **Acute Renal Failure (ARF)**, specifically during the oliguric phase, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium effectively. This leads to **hyperkalemia** (elevated serum potassium), which is a life-threatening complication of renal failure. Hypokalemia is only seen in the later "diuretic phase" of recovery, but the hallmark of acute renal insult is potassium retention. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Adrenal tumor:** Specifically, tumors like Conn’s syndrome (Primary Hyperaldosteronism) or those causing Cushing’s syndrome lead to excess mineralocorticoid activity. Aldosterone acts on the distal tubules to reabsorb sodium and **excrete potassium**, resulting in hypokalemia. * **Thiazide therapy:** Thiazide diuretics inhibit the NaCl symporter in the distal convoluted tubule. This increases sodium delivery to the collecting ducts, where it is exchanged for potassium, leading to **urinary potassium wasting** and hypokalemia. * **Diarrhea:** This is a common cause of hypokalemia in infants. Gastrointestinal fluids are rich in potassium and bicarbonate; excessive loss leads to both dehydration and significant **hypokalemia**. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **ECG in Hypokalemia:** Look for flattened T-waves, prominent **U-waves**, and ST-segment depression. * **ECG in Hyperkalemia:** Look for **tall tented T-waves**, widened QRS, and loss of P-waves. * **Bartter and Gitelman Syndromes:** These are important pediatric genetic causes of hypokalemia associated with metabolic alkalosis and normal blood pressure. * **Rule of Thumb:** Most "renal failure" questions in exams assume the oliguric phase unless "diuretic phase" is explicitly mentioned.

Q: A 10-year-old boy presents with cola-colored urine, oliguria for 3 days, facial puffiness, edema, and hypertension. Urine albumin is positive, and C3 levels are reduced. His blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg. He had a skin infection two weeks prior. Which of the following is true about this condition?

C3 levels return to normal in 6-8 weeks.. The clinical presentation of cola-colored urine, hypertension, edema, and low C3 levels following a skin infection (impetigo) points to **Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis (PSGN)**. ### **Explanation of Options** * **Correct Answer (B):** In PSGN, the alternative complement pathway is activated, leading to low C3 levels. A hallmark of PSGN is that **C3 levels return to normal within 6–8 weeks**. If C3 remains low beyond 8 weeks, alternative diagnoses like Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis (MPGN) or Lupus Nephritis must be considered. * **Option A:** Renal biopsy is **not** routinely required. It is only indicated if there is atypical presentation (e.g., normal C3, persistent hematuria/proteinuria, or rapidly deteriorating renal function). * **Option C:** The treatment is primarily **supportive** (fluid restriction, diuretics for edema, and antihypertensives like CCBs). Immunosuppressants like Cyclosporine have no role in PSGN. * **Option D:** PSGN typically affects school-aged children. The most common age group is **5–12 years**; it is uncommon under the age of 3. ### **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG** * **Latent Period:** 1–2 weeks after pharyngitis; 3–6 weeks after skin infection (pyoderma). * **Diagnosis:** Low C3, elevated ASO titer (more common in pharyngitis), and elevated Anti-DNase B (more sensitive for skin infections). * **Microscopy:** Light microscopy shows "Starry sky" appearance or "Lumpy-bumpy" deposits. Electron microscopy shows characteristic **sub-epithelial humps**. * **Prognosis:** Excellent in children (>95% complete recovery); worse in adults. Hematuria may persist for up to 1 year.

Q: What is the presenting manifestation of Alport syndrome?

Hematuria. **Explanation:** **Alport Syndrome** is a hereditary type IV collagen disorder (most commonly X-linked dominant) caused by mutations in the *COL4A3, COL4A4,* or *COL4A5* genes. This leads to structural defects in the glomerular basement membrane (GBM), cochlea, and lens. 1. **Why Hematuria is Correct:** **Persistent microscopic or gross hematuria** is the hallmark and earliest presenting manifestation of Alport syndrome, often appearing in early childhood. The defective type IV collagen causes the GBM to be thin and fragile initially, leading to the leakage of red blood cells into the urine. 2. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Proteinuria:** While proteinuria develops as the disease progresses and signifies worsening renal function (eventually leading to Nephrotic range proteinuria), it is rarely the *initial* presenting sign. * **Oliguria:** This is a feature of acute kidney injury or end-stage renal disease (ESRD). It is a late-stage complication rather than a presenting symptom. * **Sensorineural Deafness:** Although a classic extra-renal feature of Alport syndrome, it typically manifests in late childhood or adolescence (usually after the onset of hematuria). It is a diagnostic clue but not the primary presenting manifestation. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Electron Microscopy (Gold Standard):** Shows a characteristic **"Basket-weave appearance"** due to irregular thickening, thinning, and splitting of the GBM. * **Ocular Findings:** **Anterior Lenticonus** (pathognomonic) and perimacular "fleck" retinopathy. * **Inheritance:** 80% are X-linked Dominant (males are more severely affected). * **Rule of 3:** Alport syndrome affects the **Kidneys** (Hematuria), **Ears** (SNHL), and **Eyes** (Lenticonus).

Q: Hypertensive crises in younger children are usually secondary to an underlying disease. What is the commonest cause of systemic hypertension in children?

Acute glomerulonephritis. **Explanation:** In the pediatric population, hypertension is predominantly **secondary** rather than essential. The most common cause of systemic hypertension in children is **Renal Parenchymal Disease**, accounting for approximately 70-80% of cases. Among these, **Acute Glomerulonephritis (AGN)**—specifically Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis (PSGN)—is the leading cause. **Why Acute Glomerulonephritis is correct:** The pathophysiology involves immune-complex deposition in the glomeruli, leading to a sudden decrease in the Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR). This results in **salt and water retention**, leading to volume expansion and circulatory overload, which manifests clinically as hypertension, edema, and hematuria. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Coarctation of Aorta:** While a classic cause of upper limb hypertension in children, it is less common than renal causes. It should be suspected if there is a significant blood pressure differential between upper and lower limbs and diminished femoral pulses. * **Nephrotic Syndrome:** Hypertension is not a primary feature of minimal change disease (the most common type). While it can occur in certain variants (like FSGS), it is far less frequent than in nephritic syndromes like AGN. * **Lactic Acidosis:** This is a metabolic derangement often associated with shock or metabolic errors; it typically presents with hypotension or cardiovascular collapse rather than systemic hypertension. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Age-wise causes:** In newborns, renal artery thrombosis is common; in adolescents, essential hypertension becomes more prevalent. 2. **Gold Standard:** The most accurate way to diagnose pediatric hypertension is by using age, sex, and height-based **BP centile charts**. 3. **Rule of Thumb:** Any child presenting with a hypertensive crisis and "cola-colored urine" should be evaluated for PSGN first.

Q: All of the following are associated with low complement levels except?

Diarrhea-associated hemolytic uremic syndrome. ### Explanation The measurement of serum complement levels (specifically C3 and C4) is a critical diagnostic step in pediatric nephrology to differentiate between various types of glomerulonephritis (GN). **Why Option C is Correct:** **Diarrhea-associated Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (D+ HUS)** is typically caused by Shiga toxin-producing *E. coli* (STEC). The pathophysiology involves direct endothelial injury and microvascular thrombosis rather than immune complex-mediated complement consumption. Therefore, **complement levels remain normal** in D+ HUS. *Note:* In contrast, "Atypical HUS" (non-diarrheal) is often associated with genetic mutations in the alternative complement pathway, though serum C3 levels may still be normal in many cases. **Why the Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Post-infectious GN (PSGN):** Characterized by **low C3** and normal C4. This occurs due to the activation of the alternative complement pathway. Levels typically normalize within 6–8 weeks. * **Lupus Nephritis:** A classic immune complex-mediated disease that activates the classical pathway, leading to **low C3 and low C4**. * **Mesangiocapillary (Membranoproliferative) GN:** * Type I: Low C3 and low C4 (Classical pathway). * Type II (Dense Deposit Disease): Low C3 and normal C4 (Alternative pathway due to C3 nephritic factor). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Low C3 + Normal C4:** PSGN, MPGN Type II. 2. **Low C3 + Low C4:** Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE), MPGN Type I, Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis, Cryoglobulinemia. 3. **Normal Complement GN:** IgA Nephropathy (most common worldwide), Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP), Minimal Change Disease, and Alport Syndrome. 4. If C3 remains low beyond 8 weeks in a suspected PSGN case, consider a renal biopsy to rule out MPGN.

Q: A child with a history of recurrent throat infections presents with hematuria and proteinuria. The last infection was 3 weeks prior to presentation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis. **Explanation** The correct answer is **Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis (PSGN)**. **Why PSGN is correct:** PSGN is the most common cause of acute nephritic syndrome in children. It typically follows an infection with Group A Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus (GABHS). The hallmark of PSGN is the **latent period** between the infection and the onset of renal symptoms (hematuria, proteinuria, edema, and hypertension). For post-pharyngeal infections, this period is typically **1–3 weeks**, matching the 3-week timeline in this clinical scenario. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Berger’s Disease (IgA Nephropathy):** This is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis worldwide. However, it presents as **synpharyngitic hematuria**, meaning the hematuria occurs simultaneously or within 1–2 days of the infection, lacking the long latent period seen in PSGN. * **Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP):** While it involves IgA deposition, it is a systemic vasculitis characterized by a classic tetrad: palpable purpura (usually on lower limbs), arthralgia, abdominal pain, and renal involvement. * **Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis (MPGN):** This is a chronic condition that can present with nephritic or nephrotic features but is not typically triggered by a specific acute streptococcal infection with a distinct latent period. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Low C3 levels:** A key diagnostic marker in PSGN; complement levels usually return to normal within 6–8 weeks. * **ASO Titer:** Elevated after pharyngeal infection; **Anti-DNase B** is more sensitive for skin infections (impetigo). * **Microscopy:** Look for "Lumpy-bumpy" or "Starry sky" appearance on Immunofluorescence (IgG and C3 deposits). * **Electron Microscopy:** Pathognomonic **Subepithelial humps**.

Q: Hypercalciuria is said to be present in children if daily calcium excretion in urine is more than:

4 mg/kg. In pediatric nephrology, **Hypercalciuria** is a critical clinical finding often associated with hematuria, renal stones (nephrolithiasis), and voiding dysfunction. ### **Explanation of the Correct Answer** The standard definition of hypercalciuria in children (older than 2 years) is a 24-hour urinary calcium excretion exceeding **4 mg/kg/day** while on a normal diet. For screening purposes, a spot urine **Calcium:Creatinine (Ca:Cr) ratio** is often used; a ratio **>0.2** is considered suggestive of hypercalciuria in children over 2 years of age. ### **Analysis of Incorrect Options** * **Options A, B, and C (1, 2, and 3 mg/kg):** These values fall within the physiological range of calcium excretion. While calcium levels vary based on dietary intake (sodium and protein), they do not meet the diagnostic threshold for hypercalciuria in the pediatric population. ### **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG** * **Infant Variation:** In infants (0–6 months), the threshold is higher due to immature tubular reabsorption. A Ca:Cr ratio **>0.8** is considered normal in this age group. * **Clinical Presentation:** Idiopathic hypercalciuria is the most common cause of isolated hematuria in children without proteinuria or casts. * **Management:** The primary treatment involves **increased fluid intake** and **dietary sodium restriction** (as sodium and calcium are co-transported in the proximal tubule). Thiazide diuretics may be used in refractory cases to increase distal tubular calcium reabsorption. * **Association:** It is frequently linked to a family history of kidney stones.

Question 1

Which of the following is characteristic of Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Causes mild to severe Coombs-positive hemolytic anemia.

Answer

Most commonly caused by verocytogenic E. coli.

Answer

Recurrences are rare.

Answer

Transient thrombocytopenia.

Question 2

Hypokalemia in an infant may be due to all of the following except?

Accepted Answer

Acute renal failure

Answer

Adrenal tumor

Answer

Thiazide therapy

Answer

Diarrhea

Question 3

A 10-year-old boy presents with cola-colored urine, oliguria for 3 days, facial puffiness, edema, and hypertension. Urine albumin is positive, and C3 levels are reduced. His blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg. He had a skin infection two weeks prior. Which of the following is true about this condition?

Accepted Answer

C3 levels return to normal in 6-8 weeks.

Answer

Renal biopsy is required in all cases.

Answer

Cyclosporine is the treatment of choice.

Answer

The most common age group involved is 1-4 years.

Question 4

What is the presenting manifestation of Alport syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Hematuria

Answer

Proteinuria

Answer

Oliguria

Answer

Sensorineural deafness

Question 5

Hypertensive crises in younger children are usually secondary to an underlying disease. What is the commonest cause of systemic hypertension in children?

Accepted Answer

Acute glomerulonephritis

Answer

Coarctation of aorta

Answer

Nephrotic syndrome

Answer

Lactic acidosis

Question 6

All of the following are associated with low complement levels except?

Accepted Answer

Diarrhea-associated hemolytic uremic syndrome

Answer

Lupus nephritis

Answer

Mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis

Answer

Post-infectious glomerulonephritis

Question 7

A child with a history of recurrent throat infections presents with hematuria and proteinuria. The last infection was 3 weeks prior to presentation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis

Answer

Berger's disease

Answer

Henoch-Schönlein purpura

Answer

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

Question 8

Hypercalciuria is said to be present in children if daily calcium excretion in urine is more than:

Accepted Answer

4 mg/kg

Answer

1 mg/kg

Answer

2 mg/kg

Answer

3 mg/kg

Question 9

A 8-year-old boy presents with petechiae, azotemic oliguria, and altered sensorium in casualty. There is a history of diarrhea for the past 5 days. What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Acute porphyria

Answer

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

Answer

Henoch-Schonlein purpura

Answer

Hemolytic uremic syndrome

Question 10

A 21-year-old woman presents to the emergency room in active labor with no prenatal care. Her last menstrual period was approximately 9 months prior. Amniotic membranes were artificially ruptured, yielding no amniotic fluid. She delivers an 1800-g term infant who develops significant respiratory distress immediately at birth. A chest radiograph shows findings consistent with respiratory distress. After stabilization, what is the most appropriate next step for this infant?

Accepted Answer

Renal ultrasound

Answer

Cardiac catheterization

Answer

MRI of the brain

Answer

Liver and spleen scan

Nephrology — MCQs

Nephrology — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?