Trauma Practice Questions

Q: A Hill-Sachs lesion is typically seen in which anatomical location?

Humeral head. **Explanation:** A **Hill-Sachs lesion** is a classic radiological finding in patients with recurrent **anterior shoulder dislocation**. It is a compression fracture (impaction fracture) of the **posterosuperolateral aspect of the humeral head**. **Why the correct answer is right:** When the humeral head is displaced anteriorly and inferiorly during a dislocation, its posterior surface strikes against the sharp anterior-inferior edge of the glenoid labrum. This mechanical impact creates a "divot" or wedge-shaped defect in the **humeral head**. It is best visualized on an AP view of the shoulder with internal rotation or a Stryker notch view. **Why the incorrect options are wrong:** * **B. Femoral head:** Fractures here are typically associated with hip dislocations or femoral neck fractures (e.g., Pipkin classification), not Hill-Sachs lesions. * **C. Tibial shaft:** Injuries here are usually diaphyseal fractures resulting from direct trauma or twisting forces (e.g., toddler's fracture or stress fractures). * **D. Skull base:** Fractures here (e.g., Battle’s sign) are neurosurgical emergencies resulting from high-energy head trauma. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** 1. **Reverse Hill-Sachs Lesion:** An impaction fracture of the *anterior* humeral head, seen in **posterior shoulder dislocations**. 2. **Bankart Lesion:** Often co-exists with Hill-Sachs; it is an avulsion of the anterior-inferior glenoid labrum. 3. **Imaging:** While X-rays are initial, **MRI** is the gold standard for soft tissue (Bankart), and **CT** is best for quantifying bone loss in the humeral head. 4. **Clinical Sign:** Recurrent dislocations are often associated with a positive **Apprehension Test**.

Q: Which muscle is tested by the "lift off" test?

Subscapularis. **Explanation:** The **Lift-off test** (Gerber’s test) is the clinical gold standard for assessing the integrity of the **Subscapularis** muscle. **1. Why Subscapularis is correct:** The subscapularis is the primary **internal rotator** of the shoulder. To perform the test, the patient places the dorsum of their hand against their mid-lumbar spine and attempts to lift the hand away from the back. This position puts the shoulder in maximum internal rotation, isolating the subscapularis. An inability to lift the hand or maintain the position against resistance indicates a tear or weakness of the subscapularis tendon. **2. Why other options are incorrect:** * **Infraspinatus & Teres Minor:** These muscles are the primary **external rotators** of the shoulder. They are typically tested using the "Hornblower’s sign" or by resisting external rotation with the elbow at the side. * **Supraspinatus:** This muscle initiates the first 15° of **abduction**. It is specifically evaluated using the **"Empty Can" test (Jobe’s test)** or the "Full Can" test. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Belly Press Test:** An alternative for subscapularis if the patient lacks the internal rotation range to reach behind their back. * **Rotator Cuff Components (SITS):** Supraspinatus (Abduction), Infraspinatus (External rotation), Teres minor (External rotation), and Subscapularis (Internal rotation). * **Most common rotator cuff tear:** Supraspinatus. * **Nerve Supply:** Subscapularis is supplied by the Upper and Lower Subscapular nerves (C5-C6).

Q: A 33-year-old rugby player presents for follow-up after a first-time anterior shoulder dislocation 6 weeks ago. The shoulder has remained reduced. On examination, he has a good range of painless active and passive motion. Which of the following is considered a dynamic stabilizer of the glenohumeral joint?

Subscapularis muscle. **Explanation:** The stability of the glenohumeral joint depends on a complex interplay between static and dynamic stabilizers. **1. Why Subscapularis is Correct:** The **Subscapularis** is a component of the **Rotator Cuff**, which serves as the primary **dynamic stabilizer** of the shoulder. Dynamic stabilizers are active structures (muscles and tendons) that provide stability through contraction and "concavity-compression"—pressing the humeral head into the glenoid fossa during movement. Other dynamic stabilizers include the long head of the biceps, deltoid, and scapulothoracic musculature. **2. Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Glenoid fossa (A):** This is a bony structure that provides a shallow socket for the humeral head. It is a **static stabilizer**. * **Coracohumeral ligament (B):** This is a ligamentous structure that limits inferior translation and external rotation of the adducted arm. It is a **static stabilizer**. * **Anteroinferior labral complex (C):** The labrum increases the depth of the glenoid and acts as an anchor for the glenohumeral ligaments. It is a **static stabilizer**. (Note: An injury here is known as a Bankart lesion, the most common cause of recurrent instability). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Static Stabilizers:** Bony anatomy, Glenoid labrum, Glenohumeral ligaments (Superior, Middle, and Inferior), and negative intra-articular pressure. * **Inferior Glenohumeral Ligament (IGHL):** The most important static stabilizer against anterior dislocation when the shoulder is in **abduction and external rotation**. * **Rotator Cuff Muscles (SITS):** Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres minor, and Subscapularis. * **Bankart Lesion:** Avulsion of the anteroinferior labrum; the "essential lesion" in recurrent anterior dislocations.

Q: What is the first muscle affected in compartment syndrome?

Flexor Digitorum profundus. ### Explanation **Concept:** Compartment syndrome occurs when increased interstitial pressure within a closed osteofascial space compromises local blood circulation. In the forearm, the **deep volar compartment** is most susceptible to ischemia because it lies closest to the bone (radius and ulna), where the pressure rise is most significant and the blood supply is most easily compromised. **Why Flexor Digitorum Profundus (FDP) is the Correct Answer:** The **Flexor Digitorum Profundus** is the deepest muscle in the volar forearm. Due to its anatomical position adjacent to the bone and its relatively distal blood supply, it is the first muscle to undergo ischemic necrosis in compartment syndrome of the forearm. This is why the earliest clinical sign of Volkmann’s Ischemic Contracture (VIC) is often pain on passive extension of the fingers (stretching the FDP). **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Flexor Digitorum Sublimis (Superficialis):** This muscle lies in the superficial volar compartment. While it is affected as the syndrome progresses, it is not the first to suffer ischemia. * **C & D. Flexor Carpi Ulnaris/Radialis:** These are superficial muscles. They are generally more resistant to the initial pressure increases compared to the deep-seated FDP. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Earliest Sign:** Pain out of proportion to the injury and **pain on passive stretching** of the involved muscles. * **Most Common Site:** The leg (Anterior compartment) is the most common site overall; the forearm is the most common site in the upper limb (often following supracondylar fractures). * **The 6 P’s:** Pain, Pallor, Paresthesia, Pulselessness, Paralysis, and Poikilothermia. Note that **pulselessness is a late sign.** * **Management:** Immediate **fasciotomy** is the definitive treatment if compartment pressure exceeds 30 mmHg or is within 30 mmHg of the diastolic blood pressure (Delta pressure).

Q: Pauwel's classification is used for which of the following fractures?

Fracture of neck of femur. **Explanation:** **Pauwel’s classification** is a prognostic classification used for **Fracture Neck of Femur**. It is based on the **angle of the fracture line** relative to the horizontal plane. The underlying medical concept is that as the angle increases, the shear forces at the fracture site increase, leading to higher rates of non-union and avascular necrosis (AVN). * **Type I:** 50° (Unstable; shear forces dominate) **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Fracture of scaphoid:** Commonly classified using the **Herbert classification** (based on stability and location). * **Fracture of neck of radius:** Often classified using the **Judet classification** (based on the degree of angulation). * **Fracture of neck of talus:** Classified using the **Hawkins classification**, which is crucial for predicting the risk of AVN. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Garden’s Classification:** The most commonly used classification for neck of femur fractures in clinical practice, based on the degree of displacement (Stages I-IV). 2. **Shear Force:** Pauwel Type III is the most unstable due to high shear forces, often requiring more robust internal fixation. 3. **Blood Supply:** The main blood supply to the femoral head is the **Medial Circumflex Femoral Artery**; its disruption in neck fractures leads to AVN. 4. **Management:** In elderly patients, displaced fractures (Garden III/IV) are usually treated with **Hemiarthroplasty/THR**, whereas in young patients, **internal fixation** is preferred to save the head.

Q: Fracture shaft of femur in adults usually unites by approximately how much time?

3-4 months. The fracture of the femoral shaft is a major injury involving the largest and strongest bone in the body. In adults, the healing process follows a predictable timeline based on the bone's cortical thickness and blood supply. ### **Explanation of the Correct Answer** **Option B (3-4 months)** is the correct answer. In a healthy adult, the average time for clinical and radiological union of a femoral shaft fracture is **12 to 16 weeks**. * **Clinical Union:** Occurs when the fracture site is no longer tender and there is no movement between fragments (usually by 8-10 weeks). * **Radiological Union:** Occurs when bridging callus is visible across the fracture site on X-ray, typically completing the process by the 4th month. ### **Analysis of Incorrect Options** * **Option A (1 month):** This is too early for a long bone fracture in adults. While primary callus starts forming, it lacks the structural integrity for union. This timeline is more characteristic of neonatal or infant femoral fractures. * **Option C (6-7 months):** If a femur fracture has not united by 6 months, it is often classified as a **delayed union**. * **Option D (1 year):** This timeframe suggests **non-union** or the completion of the remodeling phase (Wolff’s Law), rather than the initial union. ### **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls** * **Healing in Children:** Femur fractures heal much faster in children (Birth: 3 weeks; Age 8: 8 weeks; Age 12: 12 weeks). * **Standard Treatment:** The gold standard for adult femoral shaft fractures is **Intramedullary (IM) Interlocking Nailing**. * **Common Complication:** Fat Embolism Syndrome is a high-yield systemic complication associated with long bone fractures like the femur. * **Blood Loss:** A closed fracture of the femur can result in internal blood loss of **1000–1500 ml**, potentially leading to hemorrhagic shock.

Question 1

What is the recommended position for the arm in a cast when a fracture of both forearm bones occurs at the same level?

Accepted Answer

Mid-pronation

Answer

Full supination

Answer

10 degrees of supination

Answer

Full pronation

Question 2

A 50-year-old male with a fracture neck of femur presents after 3 days. What is the treatment of choice?

Accepted Answer

Closed reduction and internal fixation (CR & IF)

Answer

Hemiarthroplasty

Answer

Total hip replacement

Answer

Hip spika

Question 3

A Hill-Sachs lesion is typically seen in which anatomical location?

Accepted Answer

Humeral head

Answer

Femoral head

Answer

Tibial shaft

Answer

Skull base

Question 4

Which muscle is tested by the "lift off" test?

Accepted Answer

Subscapularis

Answer

Infraspinatus

Answer

Supraspinatus

Answer

Teres minor

Question 5

A 33-year-old rugby player presents for follow-up after a first-time anterior shoulder dislocation 6 weeks ago. The shoulder has remained reduced. On examination, he has a good range of painless active and passive motion. Which of the following is considered a dynamic stabilizer of the glenohumeral joint?

Accepted Answer

Subscapularis muscle

Answer

Glenoid fossa

Answer

Coracohumeral ligament

Answer

Anteroinferior labral complex

Question 6

What is the characteristic deformity seen in a Colles fracture?

Accepted Answer

Pronation of the distal fragment

Answer

Proximal displacement of the distal fragment

Answer

Dorsal angulation of the distal fragment

Answer

Lateral angulation of the distal fragment

Question 7

What is the first muscle affected in compartment syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Flexor Digitorum profundus

Answer

Flexor Digitorum sublimis

Answer

Flexor carpi ulnaris

Answer

Flexor carpi radialis

Question 8

A 50-year-old lady sprained her ankle 2 months back, from which she made a steady recovery. Two months after the injury, she gradually developed severe pain in her right ankle with significant limitation of ankle movement. Clinical examination reveals edema and shiny skin. What is the likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Complex Regional Pain Syndrome Type I

Answer

Fibromyalgia

Answer

Complex Regional Pain Syndrome Type II

Answer

Peripheral Neuropathy

Question 9

Pauwel's classification is used for which of the following fractures?

Accepted Answer

Fracture of neck of femur

Answer

Fracture of scaphoid

Answer

Fracture of neck of radius

Answer

Fracture of neck of talus

Question 10

Fracture shaft of femur in adults usually unites by approximately how much time?

Accepted Answer

3-4 months

Answer

1 month

Answer

6-7 months

Answer

1 year

Trauma — MCQs

Trauma — MCQs

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