Reproductive Endocrinology Practice Questions

Q: A 16-year-old girl with primary amenorrhea and a high FSH level presents with a height of 5 inches. What histological finding is most consistent with her condition?

Low or absent oocytes in the ovary. ### Explanation **Correct Answer: A. Low or absent oocytes in the ovary** **Concept:** The clinical presentation of **primary amenorrhea** associated with **short stature** and **elevated FSH (Hypergonadotropic Hypogonadism)** is a classic hallmark of **Turner Syndrome (45, XO)**. In this condition, accelerated oocyte atresia occurs during fetal development. By the time of puberty, the ovaries are replaced by fibrous tissue, known as **"streak ovaries."** Because there are no functioning follicles (oocytes) to produce estrogen, the negative feedback on the pituitary is lost, leading to compensatory high levels of FSH. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B. Corpus luteal hemorrhage:** This occurs in ovulating females, usually presenting as acute pelvic pain. A patient with primary amenorrhea and high FSH is not ovulating. * **C. Adrenal hyperplasia:** Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH) typically presents with ambiguous genitalia or precocious puberty. While it can cause amenorrhea, it is usually associated with *low* or normal FSH due to androgen feedback and is not typically associated with the short stature/high FSH profile seen here. * **D. Pituitary apoplexy:** This is an acute clinical emergency (hemorrhage into the pituitary) that would result in *low* FSH (Hypogonadotropic Hypogonadism) due to gland destruction, not high FSH. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Turner Syndrome (45, XO):** The most common cause of primary amenorrhea. * **Streak Ovaries:** Histologically characterized by fibrous stroma and an absence of primordial follicles. * **Karyotype:** Always perform a karyotype in cases of primary amenorrhea with high FSH to rule out Turner syndrome or Swyer syndrome. * **Associated Findings:** Webbed neck, shield chest, coarctation of the aorta, and bicuspid aortic valve.

Q: Which of the following hormones is elevated in polycystic ovarian syndrome?

Luteinizing hormone. **Explanation:** In Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS), the primary endocrine hallmark is a **high frequency of GnRH pulses**, which leads to the preferential secretion of **Luteinizing Hormone (LH)** over Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH). This results in an **elevated LH:FSH ratio** (classically >2:1 or 3:1). The excess LH stimulates the ovarian theca cells to produce increased amounts of androgens (androstenedione and testosterone), contributing to the clinical features of hyperandrogenism and follicular arrest. **Analysis of Options:** * **Option A (17-OH Progesterone):** This is the diagnostic marker for **Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH)**. While PCOS patients may have mild elevations in androgens, a significantly elevated 17-OHP level is used to rule out CAH, which is a common differential diagnosis for PCOS. * **Option B (FSH):** FSH levels in PCOS are typically **low or low-normal**. The relative deficiency of FSH prevents the recruitment and maturation of a dominant follicle, leading to the characteristic "string of pearls" appearance of multiple small subcapsular follicles on ultrasound. * **Option D (TSH):** Thyroid dysfunction can cause menstrual irregularities, but TSH is not typically elevated in PCOS. TSH is measured during a PCOS workup primarily to exclude hypothyroidism as a cause of oligomenorrhea. **High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls:** * **Gold Standard Diagnosis:** Rotterdam Criteria (requires 2 out of 3: Oligo/anovulation, Clinical/Biochemical hyperandrogenism, and Polycystic ovaries on USG). * **Insulin Resistance:** Hyperinsulinemia is a key driver in PCOS; it decreases Sex Hormone Binding Globulin (SHBG), further increasing free (active) testosterone levels. * **Metabolic Risk:** Patients have an increased risk of Type 2 Diabetes, Dyslipidemia, and **Endometrial Carcinoma** (due to unopposed estrogen).

Q: A 20-year-old young woman presents with a history of rapidly developing hirsutism and amenorrhea with a change in voice. To establish a diagnosis, which of the following blood tests would be most appropriate to proceed with?

Testosterone. **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of **rapidly developing hirsutism**, amenorrhea, and **virilization** (deepening of voice) in a young woman is a "red flag" for an **androgen-secreting tumor** (ovarian or adrenal). **1. Why Testosterone is the Correct Answer:** In cases of rapid-onset virilization, the first step is to differentiate between common causes like PCOS and rare but serious causes like tumors. **Serum Testosterone** is the most appropriate initial investigation. A testosterone level **>200 ng/dL** is highly suggestive of an ovarian androgen-secreting tumor (e.g., Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor). While PCOS causes hirsutism, it is typically slow-onset and rarely causes voice changes or clitoromegaly. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **17-hydroxyprogesterone:** This is the screening test for **Late-onset (Non-classic) Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH)**. While CAH causes hirsutism, it usually presents with a more chronic course rather than rapid virilization. * **DHEA/DHEAS:** DHEAS is a marker for **adrenal** sources of androgens. While it would be checked if an adrenal tumor is suspected (levels >7000 mcg/dL), Testosterone is the broader initial screen for virilization. * **LH/FSH Estimation:** These are used to diagnose PCOS (LH:FSH ratio >2:1) or Premature Ovarian Failure. They do not help in identifying the source of rapid virilization. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Rapid onset + Virilization** = Think Malignancy/Tumor. * **Slow onset + Obesity + Irregular periods** = Think PCOS. * **Testosterone >200 ng/dL:** Suspect Ovarian Tumor (Sertoli-Leydig). * **DHEAS >7000 mcg/dL:** Suspect Adrenal Tumor (Adrenocortical Carcinoma). * **Ferriman-Gallwey Score:** Used to clinically quantify hirsutism (Score ≥8 is significant).

Q: A 16-year-old female presents with primary amenorrhea and bilateral inguinal hernias. She has normal sexual development with no pubic hair. Ultrasound shows no uterus and ovaries, and a blind vagina. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Androgen insensitivity syndrome. **Explanation:** The clinical presentation points toward **Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome (AIS)**, a condition where a genotypic male (46, XY) has a functional resistance to androgens. **Why AIS is the correct answer:** 1. **Absent Pubic/Axillary Hair:** This is the "hallmark" sign. Despite having testes that produce testosterone, the lack of androgen receptors prevents the development of sexual hair. 2. **Blind Vagina & Absent Uterus:** Testes produce **Anti-Müllerian Hormone (AMH)**, which causes regression of Müllerian structures (uterus, fallopian tubes, upper vagina). 3. **Inguinal Hernias:** These often contain the undescended testes, a common presentation in phenotypically female adolescents with AIS. 4. **Normal Breast Development:** Peripheral conversion of testosterone to estrogen leads to excellent breast development (often better than in Müllerian agenesis). **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Müllerian Agenesis (MRKH Syndrome):** While these patients also have a blind vagina and absent uterus, they have a **46, XX** karyotype with normal ovaries. Consequently, they have **normal pubic and axillary hair** (since their androgen receptors work fine). * **Turner’s Syndrome (45, XO):** Characterized by "streak ovaries," high FSH, short stature, and webbed neck. These patients have a uterus and vagina but lack secondary sexual characteristics (B1, P1). * **STAR Syndrome:** A rare genetic condition involving syndactyly and renal issues; it does not fit this classic endocrine profile. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Karyotype:** AIS is 46, XY; MRKH is 46, XX. * **Gonadectomy:** In AIS, testes should be removed **after puberty** (to allow natural breast development) to prevent gonadoblastoma/dysgerminoma. * **Differential Shortcut:** Primary amenorrhea + Absent Uterus + **No Hair** = AIS. Primary amenorrhea + Absent Uterus + **Normal Hair** = MRKH.

Q: Cells in vaginal cytology increase in reproductive age under the influence of which hormone?

Oestrogen. **Explanation:** The vaginal epithelium is a hormone-sensitive tissue that undergoes cyclical changes during the reproductive years. **1. Why Oestrogen is Correct:** Oestrogen is the primary hormone responsible for the **proliferation and maturation** of the vaginal squamous epithelium. Under its influence, the epithelium thickens, and cells accumulate glycogen. On a vaginal smear (cytology), oestrogen causes a shift toward **Superficial cells** (large, flat cells with pyknotic nuclei). This is quantified by the **Karyopyknotic Index (KPI)**; a high KPI indicates high oestrogenic activity. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Progesterone:** This hormone causes "maturation arrest" at the mid-level. Instead of superficial cells, it leads to an increase in **Intermediate cells**, often seen forming clusters or "clumping" (Navicular cells). It is dominant during the luteal phase and pregnancy. * **FSH & LH:** These are gonadotropins secreted by the anterior pituitary. While they regulate the ovaries to produce oestrogen and progesterone, they do not have a direct trophic effect on the vaginal squamous cells themselves. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Maturation Index (MI):** Reported as a ratio of Parabasal : Intermediate : Superficial cells. * **Childhood/Menopause:** Shift to the left (predominantly Parabasal cells due to low oestrogen). * **Pregnancy/Luteal Phase:** Shift to the middle (predominantly Intermediate cells). * **Ovulation:** Shift to the right (predominantly Superficial cells). * **Ferning Pattern:** Seen in cervical mucus under oestrogen influence (due to NaCl concentration); inhibited by progesterone. * **Döderlein’s Bacilli:** These bacteria metabolize the glycogen in oestrogen-primed vaginal cells into lactic acid, maintaining a protective acidic pH (3.8–4.5).

Q: What is the karyotype of Sweyer syndrome?

46XY. **Explanation:** **Swyer Syndrome (Pure Gonadal Dysgenesis)** is a condition characterized by a **46,XY karyotype** in an individual who presents with a female phenotype. The underlying pathology is a failure of the testicular development in utero, often due to a mutation in the **SRY gene** or other sex-determining genes (like SOX9). Because the testes do not develop, there is no production of Testosterone or Anti-Müllerian Hormone (AMH). Consequently, the Müllerian ducts persist (forming a uterus, fallopian tubes, and upper vagina), and the external genitalia develop as female. **Analysis of Options:** * **46,XY (Correct):** Despite the male genotype, the gonads are "streak gonads" and non-functional, leading to a female phenotype with primary amenorrhea. * **46,XX (Incorrect):** This is the normal female karyotype. While 46,XX Pure Gonadal Dysgenesis exists, Swyer Syndrome specifically refers to the 46,XY variety. * **45,XO (Incorrect):** This is the karyotype for **Turner Syndrome**, the most common cause of primary amenorrhea and streak gonads. Unlike Swyer syndrome, Turner patients are typically short in stature and have associated stigmata (webbed neck, shield chest). * **47,XXY (Incorrect):** This is **Klinefelter Syndrome**, which presents as a male phenotype with small testes, infertility, and gynecomastia. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Clinical Presentation:** Tall stature (unlike Turner’s), primary amenorrhea, and presence of a uterus. * **Gonads:** Streak gonads with a **high risk (approx. 30%) of germ cell tumors** (e.g., Gonadoblastoma, Dysgerminoma). * **Management:** Prophylactic **bilateral gonadectomy** is mandatory upon diagnosis due to malignancy risk, followed by Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT). * **Biochemical Profile:** Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism (High FSH/LH, Low Estrogen).

Q: Which of the following is NOT a feature of Stein-Leventhal syndrome?

Galactorrhoea. **Explanation:** **Stein-Leventhal Syndrome**, now more commonly known as **Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)**, is a complex endocrine disorder characterized by hyperandrogenism, ovulatory dysfunction, and polycystic ovarian morphology. **Why Galactorrhoea is the correct answer:** Galactorrhoea (milky nipple discharge) is typically associated with **Hyperprolactinemia**, not PCOS. While a small percentage of PCOS patients may show mildly elevated prolactin levels, galactorrhoea is not a defining clinical feature of the syndrome. Its presence should prompt a clinician to investigate other pathologies, such as a pituitary adenoma (prolactinoma). **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Increased Androgens:** This is a hallmark of PCOS. Excess LH stimulates the ovarian theca cells to produce high levels of testosterone and androstenedione, leading to hirsutism and acne. * **Increased or Normal Oestrogen:** In PCOS, there is no "estrogen deficiency." Instead, there is "unopposed estrogen" due to the peripheral conversion of androgens into estrone (E1) in adipose tissue. The lack of progesterone (due to anovulation) creates a state of chronic estrogen stimulation. * **Increased LH:** A classic biochemical finding is an **elevated LH:FSH ratio (usually >2:1 or 3:1)**. High pulse frequency of GnRH favors LH secretion over FSH, leading to follicular arrest. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Rotterdam Criteria:** Diagnosis requires 2 out of 3: (1) Clinical/biochemical hyperandrogenism, (2) Oligo/anovulation, (3) Polycystic ovaries on ultrasound (≥12 follicles or volume >10ml). * **Metabolic Link:** Insulin resistance and hyperinsulinemia are central to the pathogenesis, increasing the risk of Type 2 Diabetes and Endometrial Hyperplasia/Carcinoma. * **Drug of Choice:** **Clomiphene Citrate** was traditionally the first-line for ovulation induction, but **Letrozole** (Aromatase inhibitor) is now considered the gold standard.

Q: Sexual ambiguity may be seen in which of the following conditions?

Mixed gonadal dysgenesis. **Explanation:** **Mixed Gonadal Dysgenesis (MGD)** is the correct answer because it is one of the most common causes of ambiguous genitalia [2]. It typically results from a **45,X/46,XY mosaicism** [2]. In this condition, there is asymmetrical gonadal development (usually a streak gonad on one side and a dysgenetic testis on the other) [2]. The inadequate production of testosterone and Anti-Müllerian Hormone (AMH) by the dysgenetic testis leads to incomplete virilization of the external genitalia and the persistence of Müllerian structures (uterus/fallopian tubes), resulting in **sexual ambiguity** [2]. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome (AIS):** In the complete form, individuals have a 46,XY karyotype but a total lack of androgen receptor response [3]. This results in a **phenotypically normal female** appearance at birth, not ambiguous genitalia. * **Pure Gonadal Dysgenesis (46,XX):** These individuals have bilateral streak gonads [1]. Since no androgens or AMH are produced, they develop as **phenotypic females** with normal internal and external female anatomy, though they fail to undergo puberty [1]. * **Swyer Syndrome (46,XY Pure Gonadal Dysgenesis):** Despite the XY karyotype, the SRY gene or its downstream targets fail [4]. The gonads remain as streaks, producing no hormones [1]. Consequently, these patients develop as **phenotypic females** with a uterus and vagina. Ambiguity is absent. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **MGD Karyotype:** Most commonly 45,X/46,XY [2]. * **Management:** Due to the high risk of **Gonadoblastoma** in dysgenetic gonads containing Y-chromosomal material, prophylactic gonadectomy is often indicated. * **Rule of Thumb:** Ambiguity occurs when there is "partial" androgen action or "asymmetrical" testicular function [2]. "Pure" dysgenesis or "Complete" resistance usually results in a clear (though often female) phenotype [1].

Q: A 16-year-old girl presents with rapid onset hirsutism and amenorrhea. What is the best investigation?

Testosterone estimation. **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of **rapid onset hirsutism** accompanied by **amenorrhea** in a young girl is a "red flag" that strongly suggests a virilizing tumor (either ovarian or adrenal) rather than a functional disorder like PCOS. **1. Why Testosterone estimation is the correct answer:** In cases of rapid-onset virilization, the primary goal is to rule out an androgen-secreting tumor. **Serum Testosterone** is the most important initial marker. A level **>200 ng/dL** is highly suggestive of an ovarian androgen-secreting tumor (e.g., Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor). Testosterone is the most potent androgen and its elevation directly correlates with the severity of virilization. **2. Why other options are incorrect:** * **DHEAS estimation:** While DHEAS is a marker for adrenal tumors (levels >700 µg/dL suggest adrenal carcinoma), Testosterone is generally considered the first-line screening investigation for overall virilization. * **ACTH estimation:** This is used to diagnose Cushing’s syndrome or Addison’s disease. While Cushing’s can cause hirsutism, it presents with other systemic features (moon face, striae) and is not the primary screen for rapid virilization. * **LH and FSH estimation:** These are used to diagnose PCOS (LH:FSH ratio >2:1) or Primary Ovarian Insufficiency. PCOS typically presents with *gradual* onset hirsutism, not the rapid progression described here. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Gradual onset hirsutism + Obesity + LH:FSH >2:1** = PCOS. * **Rapid onset hirsutism + Virilization + Testosterone >200 ng/dL** = Ovarian Tumor. * **Rapid onset hirsutism + Virilization + DHEAS >700 µg/dL** = Adrenal Tumor. * **Ferriman-Gallwey Score:** Used to clinically quantify hirsutism (Score ≥8 is significant).

Q: Withdrawal bleeding with progesterone is seen in an otherwise amenorrheic woman due to which of the following conditions?

Anovulation. **Explanation:** The **Progesterone Challenge Test (PCT)** is a fundamental diagnostic tool in evaluating secondary amenorrhea. For withdrawal bleeding to occur after progesterone administration, two physiological prerequisites must be met: 1. **Adequate Endogenous Estrogen:** The ovaries must be producing enough estrogen to prime and proliferate the endometrium. 2. **Patent Outflow Tract:** The uterus and vagina must be anatomically intact. **Why Anovulation is the Correct Answer:** In **Anovulation** (e.g., PCOS), the ovaries produce estrogen, but because ovulation does not occur, no corpus luteum is formed, and no progesterone is produced. This leads to a state of "unopposed estrogen," causing a proliferative endometrium. When exogenous progesterone is given and then stopped, it mimics the natural decline of progesterone, causing the built-up endometrium to shed (withdrawal bleed). **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Hypogonadotropic Hypogonadism (A):** There is a failure of the Pituitary/Hypothalamus. Low FSH/LH leads to low estrogen levels. Without estrogen priming, the endometrium remains atrophic, and no bleeding occurs. * **Ovarian Failure (C):** The ovaries are unresponsive or depleted of follicles. Despite high FSH, estrogen levels are negligible, leading to a negative PCT. * **Tuberculosis Endometritis (D):** This causes destruction of the endometrial lining or synechiae (Asherman-like syndrome). Even with adequate hormones, there is no functional tissue to shed. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Positive PCT:** Confirms anovulation and adequate estrogen (e.g., PCOS). * **Negative PCT:** Indicates either **low estrogen** (Hypothalamic/Ovarian failure) or **endometrial/outflow tract issues**. * The next step after a negative PCT is the **Estrogen + Progesterone Challenge Test**. If bleeding occurs now, the defect is in the HPO axis; if no bleeding occurs, the defect is in the outflow tract (Asherman’s or MRKH).

Question 1

A 16-year-old girl with primary amenorrhea and a high FSH level presents with a height of 5 inches. What histological finding is most consistent with her condition?

Accepted Answer

Low or absent oocytes in the ovary

Answer

Corpus luteal hemorrhage

Answer

Adrenal hyperplasia

Answer

Pituitary apoplexy

Question 2

Which of the following hormones is elevated in polycystic ovarian syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Luteinizing hormone

Answer

17-OH progesterone

Answer

Follicular stimulating hormone

Answer

Thyroid stimulating hormone

Question 3

A 20-year-old young woman presents with a history of rapidly developing hirsutism and amenorrhea with a change in voice. To establish a diagnosis, which of the following blood tests would be most appropriate to proceed with?

Accepted Answer

Testosterone

Answer

17-hydroxyprogesterone

Answer

Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)

Answer

Luteinizing hormone (LH) + Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) estimation

Question 4

A 16-year-old female presents with primary amenorrhea and bilateral inguinal hernias. She has normal sexual development with no pubic hair. Ultrasound shows no uterus and ovaries, and a blind vagina. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Androgen insensitivity syndrome

Answer

Turner's syndrome

Answer

Mullerian agenesis

Answer

STAR syndrome

Question 5

Cells in vaginal cytology increase in reproductive age under the influence of which hormone?

Accepted Answer

Oestrogen

Answer

Progesterone

Answer

FSH

Answer

LH

Question 6

What is the karyotype of Sweyer syndrome?

Accepted Answer

46XY

Answer

46XX

Answer

45XO

Answer

47XXY

Question 7

Which of the following is NOT a feature of Stein-Leventhal syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Galactorrhoea

Answer

Increased androgens

Answer

Increased or normal oestrogen

Answer

Increased LH

Question 8

Sexual ambiguity may be seen in which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Mixed gonadal dysgenesis

Answer

Androgen insensitivity

Answer

Pure gonadal dysgenesis

Answer

Swyer syndrome

Question 9

A 16-year-old girl presents with rapid onset hirsutism and amenorrhea. What is the best investigation?

Accepted Answer

Testosterone estimation

Answer

Dihydroepiandrosterone estimation

Answer

Adrenocorticotropic hormone estimation

Answer

Luteinizing hormone and Follicle-stimulating hormone estimation

Question 10

Withdrawal bleeding with progesterone is seen in an otherwise amenorrheic woman due to which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Anovulation

Answer

Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism

Answer

Ovarian failure

Answer

Tuberculosis endometritis

Reproductive Endocrinology — MCQs

Reproductive Endocrinology — MCQs

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