Menstrual Disorders Practice Questions

Q: A 25-year-old female developed secondary amenorrhea of 6 months' duration. Even after administration of estrogen and progesterone for two weeks, there was no vaginal bleeding. The underlying cause could be in the:

Uterus. This question tests your understanding of the **Step-wise Evaluation of Secondary Amenorrhea**. ### **Explanation** The diagnosis is based on the **Progesterone Challenge Test (PCT)** followed by the **Estrogen-Progesterone (E+P) Challenge Test**. 1. **Why Uterus is Correct:** When a patient with secondary amenorrhea fails to bleed after receiving combined Estrogen and Progesterone, it indicates an **end-organ failure**. For menstruation to occur, there must be a functional endometrium and a patent outflow tract. A negative E+P challenge (no withdrawal bleed) confirms that the endometrium is either absent, scarred, or unresponsive, or there is an anatomical obstruction. The most common cause in this scenario is **Asherman’s Syndrome** (intrauterine synechiae) or cervical stenosis. 2. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Hypothalamus (B) & Pituitary (A):** If the defect were at the level of the HPO axis (low GnRH or low FSH/LH), the endometrium would still be responsive. Providing exogenous E+P would prime the endometrium and cause a withdrawal bleed. * **Ovary (D):** In Premature Ovarian Failure, the endogenous estrogen is low, but the uterus remains functional. Administering exogenous E+P would result in a withdrawal bleed. ### **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls** * **Step 1:** Rule out pregnancy (Urine Pregnancy Test). * **Step 2:** Check TSH and Prolactin levels. * **Step 3 (PCT):** Give Medroxyprogesterone acetate (10mg for 5–10 days). Bleeding = Anovulation (PCOS is the most common cause). * **Step 4 (E+P Challenge):** If PCT is negative, give Estrogen (21 days) + Progesterone (last 10 days). * **Bleeding:** Problem is in the HPO Axis (Hypothalamus/Pituitary) or Ovaries. * **No Bleeding:** Problem is in the **Outflow tract/Uterus** (e.g., Asherman’s Syndrome).

Q: Amenorrhea for three months in a female may indicate the following EXCEPT:

Endometriosis. **Explanation:** The core concept tested here is the etiology of **secondary amenorrhea** (the absence of menses for 3 months in a woman with previously normal cycles). **Why Endometriosis is the Correct Answer:** Endometriosis is defined as the presence of functioning endometrial tissue outside the uterine cavity. Clinically, it is characterized by **cyclical pelvic pain (dysmenorrhea)**, dyspareunia, and infertility. Crucially, endometriosis **does not cause amenorrhea**; in fact, it is often associated with regular cycles or even menorrhagia (heavy bleeding). Therefore, it is the "except" in this list. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Pregnancy:** This is the **most common cause** of secondary amenorrhea in women of reproductive age. It must always be ruled out first via a urine pregnancy test (hCG). * **Genital Tuberculosis:** In developing countries, TB is a major cause of secondary amenorrhea. It causes chronic endometritis leading to intrauterine synechiae (**Asherman’s Syndrome**) or destruction of the ovaries, resulting in permanent cessation of menses. * **Sheehan’s Syndrome:** This is post-partum pituitary necrosis due to severe obstetric hemorrhage. The resulting panhypopituitarism leads to a failure of gonadotropin (FSH/LH) secretion, causing secondary amenorrhea and failure of lactation. **High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls:** * **First investigation for secondary amenorrhea:** Urine Pregnancy Test. * **Most common cause of primary amenorrhea:** Turner Syndrome (45,XO). * **Asherman’s Syndrome:** Diagnosis is best made via Hysteroscopy (Gold Standard) or HSG (shows "honeycomb" appearance). * **Sheehan’s Syndrome:** The earliest clinical sign is the failure of lactation (prolactin deficiency).

Q: Which of the following is NOT a cause of amenorrhea?

Adenomyosis. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Adenomyosis**. To understand why, we must look at the pathophysiology of the menstrual cycle. Amenorrhea (absence of menses) occurs when there is a disruption in the Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Ovarian (HPO) axis or an anatomical defect in the outflow tract. **Why Adenomyosis is the correct answer:** Adenomyosis is characterized by the presence of endometrial glands and stroma within the myometrium. This leads to an enlarged, globular uterus and increased surface area of the endometrium. Clinically, it presents with **menorrhagia** (heavy menstrual bleeding) and **dysmenorrhea** (painful periods), rather than the absence of periods. It is a cause of Abnormal Uterine Bleeding (AUB-A), not amenorrhea. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Pituitary Adenoma:** Prolactin-secreting tumors (prolactinomas) inhibit the pulsatile release of GnRH, leading to hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and **secondary amenorrhea**. * **Chronic Nephritis:** Chronic systemic illnesses (like renal failure or severe anemia) act as metabolic stressors that suppress the HPO axis, leading to **functional hypothalamic amenorrhea**. * **Tubercular Endometritis:** In developing countries, TB is a leading cause of **Asherman-like syndrome**. Chronic infection leads to the destruction of the basal layer of the endometrium and subsequent intrauterine adhesions (synechiae), causing permanent amenorrhea. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common cause of Primary Amenorrhea:** Turner Syndrome (45, XO). * **Most common cause of Secondary Amenorrhea:** Pregnancy (always rule this out first!). * **Asherman Syndrome:** Diagnosis is confirmed via Hysterosalpingography (HSG) or Hysteroscopy (Gold Standard). * **Adenomyosis Triad:** Menorrhagia, Dysmenorrhea, and a symmetrically enlarged "bulky" uterus.

Q: All of the following are true about pubertal menorrhagia EXCEPT:

Endometrial biopsy confirms diagnosis. **Explanation:** Pubertal menorrhagia refers to excessive menstrual bleeding occurring between menarche and 19 years of age. Understanding its pathophysiology is crucial for NEET-PG. **Why Option B is the Correct Answer (The "Except"):** Endometrial biopsy is **contraindicated** and unnecessary in adolescents. The primary cause of pubertal menorrhagia is an immature Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Ovarian (HPO) axis, not malignancy. In this age group, the risk of endometrial cancer is near zero; therefore, invasive procedures like biopsy or D&C are avoided unless there is a high suspicion of rare pathology or failure of medical management in older patients. **Analysis of Other Options:** * **Option A:** Most cases (up to 80%) are due to **anovulatory cycles**. The immature HPO axis fails to trigger a LH surge, leading to persistent estrogen stimulation without progesterone. This results in an unstable, thickened endometrium that sheds irregularly and heavily. * **Option C:** Up to 20% of adolescents presenting with severe menorrhagia have an underlying **bleeding disorder**, most commonly **von Willebrand Disease (vWD)**. Routine screening (CBC, PT, APTT, Bleeding time) is mandatory. * **Option D:** Management is primarily medical. **Hematinics** (Iron supplements) treat the resulting anemia, while **hormonal therapy** (OCPs or cyclic progestins) stabilizes the endometrium and regulates the cycle. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common cause:** Anovulatory DUB (due to HPO axis immaturity). * **Most common systemic cause:** von Willebrand Disease. * **First-line investigation:** Pelvic Ultrasound (USG) to rule out structural causes and blood work for coagulopathy. * **Drug of choice for acute heavy bleeding:** High-dose Estrogen or OCPs to "seal" the bleeding vessels.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a cause of abnormal uterine bleeding prior to menarche?

Anovulation. **Explanation:** The key to answering this question lies in understanding the physiological state of the female reproductive system **prior to menarche**. **1. Why Anovulation is the Correct Answer:** Anovulation refers to the absence of ovulation during a menstrual cycle. For anovulation to be a cause of abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB), the **Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Ovarian (HPO) axis** must already be active and the endometrium must be primed by estrogen. Since menarche marks the first occurrence of menstruation (signaling the start of HPO activity), anovulation cannot occur *prior* to menarche. It is, however, the most common cause of AUB in the post-menarchal adolescent period. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Vulvovaginitis (A):** This is the most common cause of prepubertal vaginal bleeding/discharge. The thin, hypoestrogenic vaginal mucosa in children is highly susceptible to infection and irritation. * **Foreign Body and Abuse (B):** These are critical differential diagnoses in children. Foreign bodies (like toilet paper) cause foul-smelling bloody discharge, while sexual abuse must always be ruled out in cases of unexplained genital bleeding. * **Precocious Puberty (D):** This involves the premature activation of the HPO axis (before age 8). It leads to early endometrial stimulation and subsequent withdrawal bleeding, making it a recognized cause of pre-menarchal bleeding. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common cause of prepubertal bleeding:** Vulvovaginitis. * **Most common cause of adolescent AUB:** Anovulation (due to immature HPO axis). * **Most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding:** Atrophic endometritis/vaginitis (though malignancy must be ruled out). * **Red Flag:** Any vaginal bleeding before the development of secondary sexual characteristics (Thelarche) requires immediate investigation for trauma, foreign bodies, or tumors (e.g., Sarcoma botryoides).

Q: Spasmodic pain during dysmenorrhea is attributed to:

PGF2-$\alpha$. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **PGF2-$\alpha$**. **1. Why PGF2-$\alpha$ is correct:** Primary dysmenorrhea is characterized by spasmodic pain caused by increased production of prostaglandins in the secretory endometrium. Under the influence of progesterone, the enzyme **cyclooxygenase (COX)** is activated during menstruation. This leads to high levels of **PGF2-$\alpha$**, which is a potent **vasoconstrictor and myometrial stimulant**. It causes high-frequency, uncoordinated uterine contractions and reduces uterine blood flow (ischemia), leading to the classic "crampy" spasmodic pain. **2. Why the other options are incorrect:** * **PGE1:** This is a synthetic prostaglandin (e.g., Misoprostol) used for cervical ripening and induction of labor, but it is not the primary endogenous mediator of dysmenorrhea. * **PGE2:** While PGE2 is present in the menstrual fluid and contributes to pain by sensitizing nerve endings, it is primarily a **vasodilator**. PGF2-$\alpha$ is the dominant factor responsible for the intense spasmodic contractions. * **PGI2 (Prostacyclin):** This is a potent vasodilator and inhibitor of platelet aggregation. It actually counteracts the effects of PGF2-$\alpha$; a deficiency in PGI2 relative to PGF2-$\alpha$ is often noted in women with severe dysmenorrhea. **3. Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **First-line treatment:** NSAIDs (e.g., Mefenamic acid) are the drug of choice because they inhibit the COX enzyme, directly reducing PGF2-$\alpha$ synthesis. * **Timing:** Prostaglandin levels are highest during the first 48 hours of menstruation, which correlates with the peak intensity of symptoms. * **Secondary Dysmenorrhea:** If pain does not respond to NSAIDs or OCPs, clinicians should investigate for secondary causes like **Endometriosis** (most common) or Adenomyosis.

Q: A 19-year-old female develops bleeding from the nose during menstruation. What is she most likely suffering from?

Vicarious menstruation. ### Explanation **Correct Answer: A. Vicarious Menstruation** **1. Why it is correct:** Vicarious menstruation is defined as cyclical bleeding from an extragenital site during the time of normal menstruation. The most common site is the **nasal mucosa** (epistaxis), though it can also occur from the skin, lungs (hemoptysis), or eyes (bloody tears). This phenomenon is thought to be caused by the increased capillary permeability and fragility of extragenital tissues in response to the high levels of circulating estrogens during the premenstrual phase. **2. Why other options are incorrect:** * **B. Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP):** This is an IgA-mediated small-vessel vasculitis. While it presents with a purpuric rash, joint pain, and abdominal pain, the bleeding is not cyclical or synchronized with the menstrual cycle. * **C. Persistent Urachus:** This is a congenital anomaly where the connection between the bladder and the umbilicus remains patent. It typically presents with urinary drainage from the umbilicus, not cyclical nasal bleeding. * **D. Bleeding Diathesis:** Conditions like Von Willebrand Disease or hemophilia cause generalized bleeding tendencies (bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts). While they can cause heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia), the bleeding is not restricted to a specific extragenital site only during menstruation. **3. NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Most common site:** Nasal mucosa (Epistaxis). * **Pathophysiology:** Increased vascular permeability due to estrogen; occasionally associated with **endometriosis** at extragenital sites. * **Clinical Clue:** Always look for the keyword **"cyclical"** or **"during menstruation"** in the history of extragenital bleeding. * **Treatment:** Usually involves hormonal suppression (e.g., OCPs or GnRH analogs) to stabilize the hormonal fluctuations.

Q: A 35-year-old multigravida aborted 5 months back at 17 weeks of gestation. She has not had her periods yet, and her urine pregnancy test is negative. An estrogen-progesterone withdrawal test is also negative. What is the likely diagnosis?

Asherman syndrome. **Explanation:** The patient presents with **secondary amenorrhea** following a mid-trimester abortion. The key to this diagnosis lies in the **negative Estrogen-Progesterone (E+P) withdrawal test**. 1. **Why Asherman Syndrome is correct:** A negative E+P withdrawal test indicates that even with adequate hormonal stimulation, the endometrium fails to bleed. This signifies an **outflow tract obstruction** or **endometrial destruction**. In the clinical context of a recent pregnancy-related evacuation (abortion at 17 weeks), the most likely cause is intrauterine adhesions (synechiae) that have obliterated the uterine cavity, known as Asherman Syndrome. 2. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Anovulation:** In anovulation, the endometrium is primed with estrogen but lacks progesterone. A progesterone challenge would be negative, but an **E+P challenge would be positive** (bleeding would occur). * **Pituitary Failure (Secondary Hypogonadism) & Ovarian Failure (Primary Hypogonadism):** In both conditions, the uterus and outflow tract are intact, but endogenous hormones are deficient. Therefore, providing exogenous Estrogen and Progesterone would result in a **positive withdrawal bleed**. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Step-wise approach to Amenorrhea:** 1. Rule out pregnancy (UPT) → 2. Progesterone Challenge → 3. E+P Challenge → 4. FSH/LH levels. * **Gold Standard Investigation** for Asherman Syndrome: **Hysteroscopy** (Diagnostic and Therapeutic). * **HSG Finding:** Characterized by "honeycomb appearance" or irregular filling defects. * **Most common cause:** Vigorous curettage of a pregnant or postpartum uterus (due to the softness of the basal layer of the endometrium).

Q: Heavy menstrual bleeding is assessed by all of the following EXCEPT:

Blood loss more than 120 ml. **Explanation:** Heavy Menstrual Bleeding (HMB) is clinically defined as excessive menstrual blood loss which interferes with a woman's physical, social, emotional, and/or material quality of life. **1. Why Option D is the Correct Answer:** The classic objective definition of HMB (formerly menorrhagia) is a total blood loss of **more than 80 ml** per cycle. Option D states "more than 120 ml," which is an incorrect threshold for the standard definition. While 120 ml is indeed heavy, it is not the diagnostic cutoff used in medical literature or clinical guidelines. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options (Criteria for HMB):** * **Option A:** Passing large clots (greater than 1 inch or 2.5 cm) is a reliable clinical indicator of heavy flow, as the natural anticoagulants in the uterus cannot keep up with the volume of bleeding. * **Option B:** A drop in hemoglobin (Anemia) is a common objective consequence of chronic HMB. If a patient presents with iron deficiency anemia and heavy periods, it confirms the clinical significance of the blood loss. * **Option C:** Prolonged menses lasting more than 7 days is one of the primary criteria used to define HMB/menorrhagia. **3. NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Gold Standard Measurement:** The alkaline hematin method is the gold standard for objective measurement but is only used in research. * **PBAC Score:** The Pictorial Blood Loss Assessment Chart (PBAC) is used in clinics; a score **>100** indicates HMB. * **PALM-COEIN:** This is the FIGO classification for the etiology of Abnormal Uterine Bleeding (AUB). * **First-line Investigation:** Transvaginal Ultrasound (TVUS). * **Medical Management:** Levonorgestrel Intrauterine System (LNG-IUS) is the first-line treatment for HMB.

Question 1

A 25-year-old female developed secondary amenorrhea of 6 months' duration. Even after administration of estrogen and progesterone for two weeks, there was no vaginal bleeding. The underlying cause could be in the:

Accepted Answer

Uterus

Answer

Pituitary gland

Answer

Hypothalamus

Answer

Ovary

Question 2

Amenorrhea for three months in a female may indicate the following EXCEPT:

Accepted Answer

Endometriosis

Answer

Pregnancy

Answer

Tuberculosis of the genital tract

Answer

Sheehan's syndrome

Question 3

Which of the following is NOT a cause of amenorrhea?

Accepted Answer

Adenomyosis

Answer

Pituitary adenoma

Answer

Chronic nephritis

Answer

Tubercular endometritis

Question 4

All of the following are true about pubertal menorrhagia EXCEPT:

Accepted Answer

Endometrial biopsy confirms diagnosis

Answer

Associated with anovulatory bleeding

Answer

Routine screening for bleeding disorder is done

Answer

Hematinics and hormone therapy is the treatment of choice

Question 5

Which of the following is NOT a cause of abnormal uterine bleeding prior to menarche?

Accepted Answer

Anovulation

Answer

Vulvovaginitis

Answer

Foreign body and abuse

Answer

Precocious puberty

Question 6

Spasmodic pain during dysmenorrhea is attributed to:

Accepted Answer

PGF2-$\alpha$

Answer

PGE1

Answer

PGE2

Answer

PGI2

Question 7

Irregular shedding of the endometrium occurs due to:

Accepted Answer

Overactivity of the corpus luteum function

Answer

Epithelium being immature

Answer

It does not show the decidual-like oedema of the secretory phase

Answer

Regression of the corpus luteum function

Question 8

A 19-year-old female develops bleeding from the nose during menstruation. What is she most likely suffering from?

Accepted Answer

Vicarious menstruation

Answer

Henosch Schonlein Purpura

Answer

Persistent urachus

Answer

Bleeding diathesis

Question 9

A 35-year-old multigravida aborted 5 months back at 17 weeks of gestation. She has not had her periods yet, and her urine pregnancy test is negative. An estrogen-progesterone withdrawal test is also negative. What is the likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Asherman syndrome

Answer

Pituitary failure

Answer

Ovarian failure

Answer

Anovulation

Question 10

Heavy menstrual bleeding is assessed by all of the following EXCEPT:

Accepted Answer

Blood loss more than 120 ml

Answer

Passing clots more than 1 inch in diameter

Answer

Hemoglobin concentration below 12 g/dL

Answer

Menses lasting longer than 7 days

Menstrual Disorders — MCQs

Menstrual Disorders — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?