Maternal-Fetal Medicine Practice Questions

Q: Consider the following: 1. Reactive non-stress test, 2. Absence of deceleration, and 3. Sinusoidal pattern. Which of the above findings in an antepartum cardiotocogram indicate fetal well-being?

1 and 2 only. ***1 and 2 only*** - A **reactive non-stress test (NST)** indicates adequate fetal oxygenation and an intact autonomic nervous system, characterized by accelerations in fetal heart rate. - The **absence of decelerations**, particularly late or variable decelerations, suggests that the fetus is not experiencing significant uteroplacental insufficiency or cord compression. *2 and 3 only* - While the **absence of decelerations** is a positive sign, a **sinusoidal pattern** is a sign of severe fetal compromise. - Therefore, combining the absence of deceleration with a sinusoidal pattern does not indicate fetal well-being. *1 and 3 only* - A **reactive non-stress test** is a good indicator of fetal well-being. - However, the presence of a **sinusoidal pattern** is a concerning sign and indicates severe fetal anemia or hypoxia, not well-being. *1, 2, 3* - A **reactive non-stress test** and the **absence of decelerations** both indicate fetal well-being. - A **sinusoidal pattern**, however, is a non-reassuring finding, often associated with severe fetal anemia, hypoxia, or severe neurological compromise, and therefore does not indicate well-being.

Q: A lady with 38 weeks of pregnancy is admitted due to a first episode of painless bleeding yesterday. On examination, her hemoglobin level is 10.5 g%, blood pressure is 124/78 mmHg, the uterus is relaxed, the head is unengaged and floating, and the fetal heart sounds are regular. Ultrasound confirms placenta previa. The next line of management is:

Caesarean section. ***Caesarean section*** - The combination of **painless vaginal bleeding** and an **unengaged, floating fetal head** in a 38-week pregnancy strongly suggests **placenta previa**. - **Placenta previa** is an absolute contraindication to vaginal delivery, necessitating a **Cesarean section** to prevent catastrophic hemorrhage. *Induction of labor* - **Vaginal examination** and, consequently, **induction of labor** are contraindicated in suspected or confirmed placenta previa due to the risk of severe hemorrhage. - Applying pressure to the cervix or performing an artificial rupture of membranes could directly traumatize the placental blood vessels. *Wait and watch* - While initial bleeding might temporarily stop, the risk of a more severe and sudden hemorrhage remains high with **placenta previa**, especially as labor progresses. - At 38 weeks, the fetus is term, and waiting carries unnecessary risks for both mother and fetus without clear benefit. *Blood transfusion* - Although the patient's hemoglobin is slightly low at 10.5 g%, the primary issue is the potential for acute, severe hemorrhage, not chronic anemia requiring immediate transfusion as the definitive management. - A **blood transfusion** might be indicated as supportive care if significant blood loss occurs, but it is not the primary management for placenta previa.

Q: Which of the following is not a feature of HELLP syndrome?

Eosinophilia. ***Eosinophilia*** - **Eosinophilia** (an increase in eosinophils) is not a characteristic feature of **HELLP syndrome**. - HELLP syndrome is defined by specific hematologic and liver abnormalities, not changes in eosinophil count. *Thrombocytopenia* - **Thrombocytopenia** (platelet count < 100,000/µL) is a defining feature of **HELLP syndrome**. - It results from increased platelet consumption due to microangiopathic hemolysis. *Raised liver enzyme* - **Raised liver enzymes** (AST or ALT ≥ 70 IU/L) are a crucial diagnostic criterion for **HELLP syndrome**, indicating hepatocellular injury. - This elevation reflects liver damage and is often associated with epigastric or right upper quadrant pain. *Hemolytic anemia* - **Hemolytic anemia** (evidenced by an abnormal peripheral blood smear, elevated bilirubin, or low haptoglobin) is another key component of **HELLP syndrome**. - This involves the destruction of red blood cells, leading to anemia and often contributing to the elevated liver enzymes and thrombocytopenia.

Q: Which of the following are individual indicators of fetal distress?

All of the options. ***All of the options*** - **Meconium staining** of the amniotic fluid, **late decelerations of fetal heart rate**, and a **decrease in fetal scalp blood pH** are all recognized individual indicators of fetal distress. - These signs individually or collectively suggest that the fetus is experiencing **hypoxia** or other adverse conditions. *Meconium staining* - Refers to the presence of **meconium** (the first stool of a newborn) in the **amniotic fluid**, which can indicate fetal stress leading to gasping and passage of meconium. - While concerning, it's not always indicative of severe hypoxia but warrants further assessment. - **Mechanism**: Fetal hypoxia → vagal stimulation → relaxation of anal sphincter → meconium passage. *Late deceleration of heart rate* - **Late decelerations** are symmetric drops in fetal heart rate that begin after the peak of the contraction and return to baseline after the contraction has ended. - They are associated with **uteroplacental insufficiency** and **fetal hypoxia**, reflecting inadequate oxygen delivery to the fetus. - **Significance**: Indicates fetal compromise requiring immediate evaluation and potential intervention. *Decrease in fetal scalp blood pH* - A **low fetal scalp blood pH** (typically below 7.20) indicates **fetal acidosis**, which is a direct sign of **fetal hypoxemia** and distress. - It suggests that the fetus is undergoing anaerobic metabolism due to insufficient oxygen supply. - **Clinical utility**: Provides objective biochemical evidence of fetal compromise when CTG is non-reassuring.

Q: Which of the following congenital conditions is most commonly associated with preterm delivery?

Anencephaly. ***Anencephaly*** - This condition is most commonly associated with **polyhydramnios**, an excess of **amniotic fluid**, which can lead to **premature rupture of membranes** and **preterm delivery** - The polyhydramnios occurs due to **impaired fetal swallowing** resulting from the absent brain structures - Due to the **absence of a significant portion of the brain and skull**, fetuses with anencephaly are considered incompatible with life and approximately **50% of pregnancies with anencephaly result in preterm delivery** *Spina bifida* - While it is a **neural tube defect**, it typically does not directly cause **preterm labor or delivery** in the same manner as anencephaly - Most pregnancies with spina bifida proceed to term unless there are associated complications like **polyhydramnios** (which is less common than with anencephaly) - The primary concern with spina bifida is typically its neurological impact, not its direct link to **preterm birth** *Gastroschisis* - This is an **abdominal wall defect** where bowel herniates through a defect lateral to the umbilicus - While **over 50% of gastroschisis cases deliver preterm**, the association is **not as strong or consistent as with anencephaly** - Preterm delivery in gastroschisis may be due to **polyhydramnios, bowel complications**, or **elective early delivery** rather than spontaneous preterm labor *Congenital adrenal hyperplasia* - This is an **endocrine disorder** affecting the **adrenal glands' ability to produce certain hormones** - It does not typically lead to complications such as **polyhydramnios** or directly cause **preterm labor and delivery** - Pregnancies with CAH usually proceed to term without increased risk of preterm delivery

Q: In cases where threatened abortion is associated with ongoing placental insufficiency, what is the most likely fetal complication?

Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). ***Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)*** - **Placental insufficiency** is the leading cause of **IUGR**, as the placenta fails to deliver adequate oxygen and nutrients to the developing fetus - In threatened abortion associated with ongoing placental insufficiency, the chronic nature of reduced placental function directly impairs fetal growth - IUGR is characterized by fetal weight below the 10th percentile for gestational age and is the most predictable complication of sustained placental dysfunction - This represents a direct cause-and-effect relationship: inadequate placental function → reduced fetal nutrition → growth restriction *Fetal malformation* - Congenital malformations are primarily caused by **genetic abnormalities**, **teratogenic exposures**, or **early developmental errors** during organogenesis - Placental insufficiency does not cause structural malformations, though it may affect fetal growth and development - Malformations would typically be established early in pregnancy, independent of placental function *Preterm labor* - While placental insufficiency can be associated with preterm labor in some cases, this is not the **most likely** or most direct fetal complication - Preterm labor is a maternal-fetal process influenced by multiple factors including infection, cervical insufficiency, and uterine abnormalities - IUGR is a more consistent and direct consequence of chronic placental insufficiency *None of the options* - This is incorrect as **IUGR** is the established and most likely fetal complication when placental insufficiency is ongoing - The direct pathophysiology of placental insufficiency leading to IUGR is well-documented in obstetric literature

Q: In twin pregnancies, what is the minimum percentage difference in size that indicates significant discordance?

25% with the larger twin as index. ***25% with the larger twin as index*** - **Discordant growth** in twin pregnancies is clinically defined as a **25% or greater difference in estimated fetal weight**, calculated using the larger twin as the reference. - This threshold helps predict adverse outcomes related to **unequal placental sharing** or other growth restrictions. *15% with the larger twin as index* - A 15% difference in estimated fetal weight is generally considered **within the normal range** and does not typically indicate significant discordance warranting intervention. - While it represents a difference, it may not be substantial enough to result in increased fetal morbidity or mortality. *15% with the smaller twin as index* - Using the smaller twin as the index for comparison at 15% would likely **overestimate the prevalence of discordance**, as smaller twins naturally contribute to a larger percentage difference when used as the denominator. - This method is not the standard clinical practice for defining significant twin growth discordance. *25% with the smaller twin as index* - Similar to using the smaller twin as the index at 15%, calculating a 25% difference based on the smaller twin would lead to a **misrepresentation of significant discordance**. - The standard definition specifies using the **larger twin's estimated weight** as the denominator for percentage calculation.

Q: Which condition is associated with a sinusoidal heart rate pattern?

Vasa previa. ***Vasa previa*** - A **sinusoidal heart rate pattern** is a sign of severe **fetal anemia**, often caused by **fetal hemorrhage**. - In vasa previa, unprotected fetal blood vessels course over the cervical os, making them vulnerable to rupture and leading to **fetal bleeding** and subsequent anemia. *Placenta previa* - This condition involves the **placenta covering the cervical os**, primarily causing **painless vaginal bleeding** in the mother. - The bleeding is **maternal blood**, not fetal blood, so it does not directly cause fetal anemia or a sinusoidal heart rate pattern. *Battledore placenta* - In a battledore placenta, the **umbilical cord is inserted marginally** into the placental disk, rather than centrally. - This anatomical variation is generally a benign finding and is not directly associated with fetal hemorrhage or a sinusoidal heart rate pattern. *Succenturiate placenta* - This involves **one or more accessory placental lobes** located separately from the main placental body. - The main concern is a retained lobe after delivery or vessels connecting the lobes, which can cause bleeding, but it is not specifically linked to a sinusoidal heart rate pattern.

Q: What is the earliest and most conclusive sign of intrauterine fetal death?

Spalding sign. ***Correct: Spalding sign*** - Spalding sign refers to the **overlapping of fetal skull bones** at the sutures, seen on radiological imaging (X-ray or ultrasound). - This occurs due to **liquefaction of the brain tissue** and loss of intracranial support after fetal death. - It is considered the **earliest conclusive radiological sign** of intrauterine fetal death, typically appearing **3-7 days** after fetal demise. - This sign is **highly specific** for fetal death and is widely recognized in obstetric practice. *Incorrect: Intrafetal gas in areas of the great vessels and heart* - Also known as **Robert's sign**, this represents gas formation within the fetal cardiovascular system due to decomposition. - While this is a **definitive sign** of fetal death, it is a **late finding** that typically appears **2-3 weeks after fetal demise**. - It requires significant bacterial decomposition and gas production, making it **not the earliest sign**. *Incorrect: Crowding of ribs* - This sign indicates **collapse of the fetal thoracic cage** due to maceration and loss of soft tissue support. - It is a **late manifestation** of fetal death and appears after more extensive decomposition. - This sign is **less specific** compared to Spalding sign. *Incorrect: Hyperflexion of spine* - **Hyperflexion of the fetal spine** results from loss of muscular tone and ligamentous support after death. - This is also a **late finding** associated with advanced maceration. - It is **not as early or specific** as Spalding sign for diagnosing intrauterine fetal death.

Question 1

Consider the following: 1. Reactive non-stress test, 2. Absence of deceleration, and 3. Sinusoidal pattern. Which of the above findings in an antepartum cardiotocogram indicate fetal well-being?

Accepted Answer

1 and 2 only

Answer

2 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only

Answer

1, 2, 3

Question 2

A lady with 38 weeks of pregnancy is admitted due to a first episode of painless bleeding yesterday. On examination, her hemoglobin level is 10.5 g%, blood pressure is 124/78 mmHg, the uterus is relaxed, the head is unengaged and floating, and the fetal heart sounds are regular. Ultrasound confirms placenta previa. The next line of management is:

Accepted Answer

Caesarean section

Answer

Induction of labor

Answer

Wait and watch

Answer

Blood transfusion

Question 3

Which of the following is not a feature of HELLP syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Eosinophilia

Answer

Raised liver enzyme

Answer

Hemolytic anemia

Answer

Thrombocytopenia

Question 4

Which of the following are individual indicators of fetal distress?

Accepted Answer

All of the options

Answer

Meconium staining

Answer

Late deceleration of heart rate

Answer

Decrease in fetal scalp blood pH

Question 5

Which of the following congenital conditions is most commonly associated with preterm delivery?

Accepted Answer

Anencephaly

Answer

Spina bifida

Answer

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

Answer

Gastroschisis

Question 6

In cases where threatened abortion is associated with ongoing placental insufficiency, what is the most likely fetal complication?

Accepted Answer

Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)

Answer

Fetal malformation

Answer

Preterm labor

Answer

None of the options

Question 7

In twin pregnancies, what is the minimum percentage difference in size that indicates significant discordance?

Accepted Answer

25% with the larger twin as index

Answer

15% with the smaller twin as index

Answer

25% with the smaller twin as index

Answer

15% with the larger twin as index

Question 8

Which condition is associated with a sinusoidal heart rate pattern?

Accepted Answer

Vasa previa

Answer

Placenta previa

Answer

Battledore placenta

Answer

Succenturiate placenta

Question 9

Which of the following statements about HIV transmission in pregnancy is true?

Accepted Answer

With effective ART, the chance of transmission can be reduced to less than 1%.

Answer

Perinatal transmission of HIV is common.

Answer

Pregnancy increases the risk of acquiring HIV.

Answer

LSCS significantly increases the chances of HIV transmission.

Question 10

What is the earliest and most conclusive sign of intrauterine fetal death?

Accepted Answer

Spalding sign

Answer

Crowding of ribs

Answer

Hyperflexion of spine

Answer

Intrafetal gas in areas of the great vessels and heart

Maternal-Fetal Medicine — MCQs

Maternal-Fetal Medicine — MCQs

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