Maternal-Fetal Medicine — MCQs

Maternal-Fetal Medicine Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1251: What is the best parameter for estimating fetal age by ultrasound in the third trimester?

A. Abdominal circumference
B. Femur length
C. Intraocular distance
D. BPD (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***BPD (Biparietal Diameter)*** - **Biparietal diameter (BPD)** is considered the **best single parameter** among the given options for estimating fetal age in the third trimester, though all parameters become less accurate with advancing gestation. - In the third trimester, BPD accuracy is approximately **±3-4 weeks**, which is why **first trimester dating (CRL) should always be used when available** as it is most accurate (±5-7 days). - BPD is measured at the level of the thalami and cavum septum pellucidum, from outer edge of the proximal skull to the inner edge of the distal skull. - **Note**: Multiple biometric parameters used together improve accuracy more than any single measurement in late pregnancy. *Femur length* - **Femur length (FL)** is highly accurate in the **second trimester** but becomes less reliable in the third trimester due to biological variation. - It can be affected by **skeletal dysplasias** and genetic factors, leading to inaccurate age estimation. - FL is better used for assessing proportionate growth rather than dating in late pregnancy. *Abdominal circumference* - **Abdominal circumference (AC)** is primarily used for assessing **fetal growth and estimating fetal weight**, not for gestational age determination. - It is highly variable and influenced by fetal nutritional status, growth restriction, or macrosomia, making it unreliable for dating. - AC is the **most sensitive parameter for detecting growth abnormalities** (IUGR or LGA). *Intraocular distance* - **Intraocular distance (IOD)** is not a standard biometric parameter for routine gestational age estimation. - It has limited clinical utility and is occasionally used for detecting specific **fetal anomalies** (hypertelorism/hypotelorism) rather than dating. - Standard biometric parameters (BPD, HC, AC, FL) are always preferred for gestational age assessment.

Question 1252: What is the recommended management for jaundice due to obstetric cholestasis in the third trimester?

A. Induction of labour at 37 weeks
B. Induction of labour at 42 weeks
C. Induction of labour at 38 weeks (Correct Answer)
D. Wait for spontaneous labour

Explanation: ***Induction of labour at 38 weeks*** - **Obstetric cholestasis (Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy)** is associated with increased risk of **stillbirth**, particularly beyond 37-38 weeks gestation. - Induction at **37-38 weeks** is recommended to balance reducing stillbirth risk while minimizing prematurity complications. - **Current practice**: Timing depends on **bile acid levels** - delivery at 37-38 weeks for bile acids >40 μmol/L, or 38-39 weeks for milder cases (19-39 μmol/L). - This option represents the standard management approach for most cases of obstetric cholestasis. *Induction of labour at 37 weeks* - Delivery at 37 weeks is also acceptable and increasingly preferred, particularly for **severe disease** (bile acids >40 μmol/L) or when there are additional risk factors. - Both 37 and 38 weeks are within the recommended window; the choice depends on **disease severity** and individual risk assessment. - This is not incorrect, but 38 weeks represents a slightly more conservative approach balancing risks. *Induction of labour at 42 weeks* - Waiting until 42 weeks significantly increases the risk of **intrauterine fetal death (IUFD)** in pregnancies complicated by obstetric cholestasis. - Prolonged exposure to **elevated bile acids** is toxic to the fetus and increases stillbirth risk, especially after 37-38 weeks. - This approach is **contraindicated** in obstetric cholestasis. *Wait for spontaneous labour* - Expectant management beyond 38 weeks is considered **unsafe** due to the unpredictable and progressive risk of **sudden intrauterine death**. - Active management with planned delivery at 37-38 weeks is the standard of care to prevent stillbirth. - Waiting for spontaneous labor exposes the fetus to unacceptable risks.

Question 1253: What is a potential risk for pregnant women who undertake long journeys with prolonged sitting?

A. Venous thromboembolism
B. Deep vein thrombosis (Correct Answer)
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Leg swelling

Explanation: ***Deep vein thrombosis*** - **Pregnancy** is a **hypercoagulable state** due to increased levels of clotting factors (fibrinogen, factors VII, VIII, X) and decreased protein S activity. - **Prolonged sitting** during long journeys causes **venous stasis** in the lower extremities, which is a key component of **Virchow's triad** for thrombosis (stasis, hypercoagulability, endothelial injury). - **DVT** is the **direct and most specific pathological consequence** of prolonged immobilization during travel in pregnancy. - The risk of **VTE in pregnancy** is **4-5 times higher** than in non-pregnant women, with travel-related DVT being a recognized complication. *Venous thromboembolism* - VTE is an **umbrella term** that encompasses both **DVT and pulmonary embolism**. - While technically correct as a broader category, DVT is the **more specific and direct answer** to what prolonged sitting causes. - In medical education and clinical practice, identifying the **specific pathology** (DVT) is more appropriate than using the general category (VTE). *Pulmonary embolism* - PE is a **complication** of DVT, occurring when a thrombus dislodges and embolizes to the pulmonary circulation. - PE is a **secondary consequence**, not the **primary risk** from prolonged sitting itself. - The direct mechanism of prolonged sitting → venous stasis → **DVT formation** → potential embolization to lungs. *Leg swelling* - **Leg swelling** (edema) is a **symptom**, not a pathological diagnosis. - While leg edema can indicate DVT, it's also common in normal pregnancy due to increased venous pressure and fluid retention. - The question asks for a **risk** (pathological condition), not a symptom.

Question 1254: Which condition is characterized by androgenesis (purely paternal genetic origin)?

A. Androgenic complete mole (Correct Answer)
B. Turner's syndrome
C. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
D. Androgenic partial mole

Explanation: ***Androgenic complete mole*** - A **complete hydatidiform mole** is characterized by the absence of maternal genetic material and a **purely paternal genetic origin** (androgenesis). - This typically results from the **fertilization of an 'empty' egg** by either two haploid sperm or one diploid sperm. *Turner's syndrome* - This condition is a **chromosomal disorder** in females where one of the two X chromosomes is missing or incomplete (45, X0). - It is not associated with androgenesis but rather with the **absence of a functionally complete X chromosome**. *Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)* - PCOS is an **endocrine disorder** characterized by **hormonal imbalance** (high androgens), ovulatory dysfunction, and polycystic ovaries. - It involves maternal and paternal genetic contributions in a normal diploid set and is not related to androgenesis. *Androgenic partial mole* - A **partial hydatidiform mole** typically involves **triploidy**, where there are two sets of paternal chromosomes and one set of maternal chromosomes (e.g., 69, XXX or 69, XXY). - While it involves extra paternal genetic material, it is not purely paternal in origin, as a **maternal haploid set is also present**.

Question 1255: In which part of the fallopian tube is there a high chance of rupture in a tubal pregnancy?

A. Interstitial
B. Fimbrial
C. Isthmus (Correct Answer)
D. Ampulla

Explanation: ***Isthmus*** - The **isthmus** is the narrowest and most muscular part of the fallopian tube. Due to its limited ability to stretch, an ectopic pregnancy here is highly prone to rupture **earlier** than in other segments (typically 6-8 weeks). - The **isthmic portion's** small lumen and thick muscular wall make rupture a rapid and common complication, often before significant fetal growth, giving it the **highest chance of rupture** when an ectopic pregnancy implants there. *Ampulla* - The **ampulla** is the most common site for ectopic pregnancies (approximately 70%) due to its wider lumen and being the usual site of fertilization. - However, rupture in the ampulla tends to occur **later** than in the isthmus (8-12 weeks) as it can accommodate the growing embryo for a longer period due to its greater distensibility. - While more ectopic pregnancies occur here in absolute numbers, each individual ampullary pregnancy has a **lower chance of rupture** compared to isthmic pregnancies. *Interstitial* - The **interstitial** (or cornual) part is the segment within the uterine wall, making it a rare site for ectopic pregnancies (2-4%). - Ruptures in the interstitial portion occur **latest** (12-16 weeks) but are often the most dangerous, leading to severe hemorrhage due to the surrounding vascularity of the uterus and proximity to uterine and ovarian arteries. *Fimbrial* - The **fimbrial** end is the portion closest to the ovary and is exceedingly rare for ectopic implantation. - Implantation near the fimbriae usually leads to an **"abdominal pregnancy"** if the embryo is extruded, or could result in early "tubal abortion" rather than a true rupture.

Question 1256: What is the most common fetal complication associated with gestational diabetes?

A. Only a small percentage of women with gestational diabetes develop overt diabetes.
B. There is a risk of macrosomia in babies born to mothers with gestational diabetes. (Correct Answer)
C. Gestational diabetes is usually diagnosed in the second or third trimester.
D. Gestational diabetes can increase the risk of congenital malformations.

Explanation: ***There is a risk of macrosomia in babies born to mothers with gestational diabetes.*** - **Macrosomia** (birth weight >4000g or >90th percentile) is a common complication due to fetal exposure to high glucose levels, stimulating excessive growth. - Increased fetal insulin from maternal hyperglycemia promotes fat accumulation and growth, leading to **shoulder dystocia**, birth trauma, and increased risk of C-section. *Only a small percentage of women with gestational diabetes develop overt diabetes.* - A significant percentage, up to **50% of women** with gestational diabetes, will develop **type 2 diabetes** later in life, often within 5-10 years postpartum, making this statement incorrect. - This persistent risk highlights the importance of postpartum screening and lifestyle modifications for these women. *Gestational diabetes is usually diagnosed in the second or third trimester.* - While screening typically occurs between **24 and 28 weeks of gestation** (second trimester), this describes when it is diagnosed, not the *most common risk* associated with the condition itself. - Early screening may occur in the first trimester for high-risk individuals, but the general screening period is later in pregnancy. *Gestational diabetes can increase the risk of congenital malformations.* - **Congenital malformations** are primarily associated with **pre-existing diabetes** (type 1 or type 2 diabetes) in the mother during the **first trimester**, when organogenesis occurs. - Gestational diabetes, diagnosed later in pregnancy, primarily leads to complications related to **fetal growth** and metabolic issues, not structural malformations.

Question 1257: USG of 28 weeks gestation showing oligohydramnios is likely to be due to?

A. Renal pathway obstruction (Correct Answer)
B. Neuromuscular disorder
C. Gastrointestinal obstruction
D. Anencephaly

Explanation: ***Renal pathway obstruction*** - **Oligohydramnios** (low amniotic fluid) in the late second or third trimester is often caused by conditions that impair fetal urine production or outflow. - **Renal pathway obstruction** (e.g., posterior urethral valves, bilateral renal agenesis) prevents the fetus from producing or excreting sufficient urine, a primary source of amniotic fluid. *Gastrointestinal obstruction* - **Gastrointestinal obstruction** is more commonly associated with **polyhydramnios** because it impairs the fetal swallowing of amniotic fluid. - Inability to swallow leads to an *accumulation* of amniotic fluid, not a reduction. *Anencephaly* - **Anencephaly** is typically associated with **polyhydramnios** due to impaired swallowing of amniotic fluid. - The exposed brain tissue can also lead to increased fluid transudation. *Neuromuscular disorder* - **Neuromuscular disorders** can cause **polyhydramnios** if they lead to impaired fetal swallowing due to muscle weakness. - If a neuromuscular disorder affects the renal system, it could potentially cause oligohydramnios, but it is not the primary cause of oligohydramnios itself.

Question 1258: What is the most common presenting feature of a complete mole?

A. Vomiting
B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
C. Amenorrhoea
D. Bleeding per vaginum (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Bleeding per vaginum (Correct)*** - **Vaginal bleeding** in the first or early second trimester is the **most common presenting symptom** of a complete hydatidiform mole, occurring in approximately 80-90% of cases - This bleeding can vary in amount and color, often described as **prune juice-like** discharge with passage of grape-like vesicles in some cases - Typically presents between **6-16 weeks of gestation** as the most frequent initial clinical sign *Vomiting (Incorrect)* - While nausea and vomiting are common in normal pregnancies, this is **not the most common presenting feature** of a complete mole - Vomiting may occur but is less specific and typically occurs after or in conjunction with vaginal bleeding - When severe, it manifests as hyperemesis gravidarum (a separate entity) *Hyperemesis gravidarum (Incorrect)* - This condition, characterized by **severe, persistent nausea and vomiting**, is more prevalent in molar pregnancies due to **excessively high hCG levels** - Occurs in approximately **25-30% of complete moles**, making it a significant but not the most common presentation - It is a **consequence** of the molar pregnancy, often presenting **after** initial bleeding, and is not the most frequent first clinical sign *Amenorrhoea (Incorrect)* - **Amenorrhoea** (absence of menstruation) is a **universal symptom** of any pregnancy, including a molar pregnancy - While it indicates conception, it does **not differentiate** a molar pregnancy from a normal pregnancy or other causes of amenorrhoea - Therefore, it is not the most specific or common **presenting feature** that would lead to diagnosis of a molar pregnancy

Question 1259: What is the management of eclampsia at 34 weeks of pregnancy?

A. Continue convulsions and wait for 37 weeks to complete.
B. Wait for spontaneous labor.
C. Continue blood pressure management.
D. Administer antihypertensives, anticonvulsants, and consider termination of pregnancy. (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Administer antihypertensives, anticonvulsants, and consider termination of pregnancy.** - In eclampsia, emergent management includes immediate administration of **magnesium sulfate** as an anticonvulsant and **antihypertensives** (e.g., labetalol, hydralazine, nifedipine) to control blood pressure. - Given the gestational age of 34 weeks and the occurrence of eclampsia, **delivery of the fetus** is often indicated to resolve the maternal condition, regardless of fetal lung maturity. *Continue convulsions and wait for 37 weeks to complete.* - Allowing **convulsions to continue** is extremely dangerous for both mother and fetus, increasing risks of aspiration, trauma, hypoxemia, and placental abruption. - Eclampsia is a severe complication of pregnancy that necessitates immediate intervention and **should not be passively observed** until full term. *Wait for spontaneous labor.* - **Delaying delivery** while waiting for spontaneous labor in eclampsia significantly prolongs the mother's exposure to the severe complications of the condition. - Eclampsia is an ** obstetric emergency** where prompt delivery, often via induction or C-section, is the definitive cure. *Continue blood pressure management.* - While **blood pressure management** is a crucial component of eclampsia treatment, it is insufficient on its own. - Eclampsia specifically involves **seizures**, which require anticonvulsant therapy (magnesium sulfate) in addition to antihypertensives, and the ultimate treatment is delivery.

Question 1260: 34 week primigravida punjabi khatri comes with history of consanguineous marriage, with history of repeated blood transfusion to her sibling since 8 months of age. The first diagnostic test is -

A. HPLC
B. Bone marrow
C. Blood smear
D. Hb electrophoresis (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Hb electrophoresis*** - The patient's history of **consanguineous marriage**, a sibling requiring **repeated blood transfusions** since 8 months of age, and Punjabi Khatri ethnicity strongly suggest a **hemoglobinopathy**, likely **beta-thalassemia major or intermedia**. - **Hemoglobin electrophoresis** is the traditional gold standard for definitive diagnosis of various hemoglobin variants and thalassemia types, identifying and characterizing abnormal hemoglobin patterns (e.g., elevated HbF, HbA2). - It remains a primary diagnostic test for hemoglobinopathies, particularly useful for pattern recognition of various thalassemia syndromes. *HPLC* - **High-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC)** is an equally valid and increasingly preferred method for diagnosing hemoglobinopathies, offering automated, precise quantification of hemoglobin fractions (HbA, HbA2, HbF). - In modern practice, HPLC is often used as a first-line screening tool due to its accuracy, reproducibility, and ability to provide quantitative data crucial for thalassemia diagnosis. - Both HPLC and Hb electrophoresis are acceptable diagnostic approaches; the choice between them depends on laboratory availability and practice patterns. For this 2013 exam, Hb electrophoresis was considered the traditional first diagnostic test. *Blood smear* - A **peripheral blood smear** would show morphological changes like **microcytic hypochromic red blood cells**, **target cells**, **anisopoikilocytosis**, and **nucleated RBCs**, which are suggestive of thalassemia. - These findings are indicative but non-specific and require confirmatory tests like hemoglobin electrophoresis or HPLC to identify the specific hemoglobin disorder and establish a definitive diagnosis. *Bone marrow* - A **bone marrow** examination would show **erythroid hyperplasia** due to increased ineffective erythropoiesis in thalassemia but is an invasive procedure and not the initial diagnostic test for hemoglobinopathies. - It provides details about cellularity and maturation but does not directly identify hemoglobin abnormalities, making it unsuitable as the first diagnostic step in suspected hemoglobinopathies.

Practice by Chapter

Fetal Assessment Techniques

Practice Questions

Hypertensive Disorders in Pregnancy

Practice Questions

Intrauterine Growth Restriction

Practice Questions

Multiple Gestation

Practice Questions

Rh Isoimmunization and Other Blood Group Incompatibilities

Practice Questions

Intrauterine Fetal Therapy

Practice Questions

Prenatal Diagnosis and Genetic Counseling

Practice Questions

Placental Abnormalities

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Preterm Labor and Delivery

Practice Questions

Management of Medical Disorders in Pregnancy

Practice Questions

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