Maternal-Fetal Medicine — MCQs

Maternal-Fetal Medicine Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1121: A 30-year-old woman presents with a history of recurrent pregnancy losses and a positive lupus anticoagulant test. What is the most appropriate treatment?

A. Low-dose aspirin
B. Heparin (Correct Answer)
C. Methotrexate
D. Corticosteroids

Explanation: ***Correct: Heparin*** - **Heparin** (typically **low-molecular-weight heparin/LMWH** or unfractionated heparin), usually combined with **low-dose aspirin**, is the **gold standard treatment** for women with **antiphospholipid syndrome (APS)** and recurrent pregnancy losses. - It prevents **thrombosis in the placental circulation**, which is the primary mechanism of fetal loss in APS. - Among single-agent options, **heparin is the most critical component** and superior to aspirin alone. - Standard dosing: **prophylactic or intermediate-dose LMWH** (e.g., enoxaparin 40mg SC daily) started once pregnancy is confirmed and continued until delivery. *Incorrect: Low-dose aspirin* - While **low-dose aspirin (75-100mg daily)** is an important adjunct and often used in combination with heparin, **aspirin alone is insufficient** to prevent recurrent pregnancy losses in women with a positive **lupus anticoagulant test**. - It primarily inhibits **platelet aggregation**, whereas **heparin** targets the **coagulation cascade**, which is more directly implicated in APS-related pregnancy complications. - Aspirin monotherapy has shown limited efficacy compared to combination therapy. *Incorrect: Methotrexate* - **Methotrexate** is an **immunosuppressant** and **folate antagonist** used in conditions like **rheumatoid arthritis** and ectopic pregnancy. - It is **absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy** due to its **teratogenic effects** (neural tube defects, skeletal abnormalities, fetal death). - It has **no role** in managing recurrent pregnancy losses related to antiphospholipid syndrome. *Incorrect: Corticosteroids* - **Corticosteroids** (e.g., prednisone) are generally **not recommended as primary therapy** for pregnancy loss prevention in **antiphospholipid syndrome**. - While they may have a role in select cases with severe autoimmune features, the evidence supporting their efficacy is **limited and inconsistent**. - They carry significant maternal risks including **gestational diabetes, hypertension, premature rupture of membranes**, and increased infection risk, without clear benefit over heparin-based therapy.

Question 1122: What is the most common complication of Zika virus infection in pregnant women?

A. Microcephaly in the newborn (Correct Answer)
B. Gestational diabetes
C. Spontaneous abortion
D. Pre-eclampsia

Explanation: ***Microcephaly in the newborn*** - **Microcephaly** is the most significant and characteristic neurological birth defect strongly linked to **Zika virus infection** during pregnancy. - The virus primarily targets developing brain cells, leading to severe brain underdevelopment and a smaller-than-normal head circumference in the fetus. - Microcephaly is the hallmark feature of **congenital Zika syndrome**, making it the most recognized complication. *Gestational diabetes* - **Gestational diabetes** is a metabolic disorder where pregnant women develop high blood sugar levels due to hormonal changes and insulin resistance. - It is not directly caused by viral infections like Zika virus. *Spontaneous abortion* - While Zika infection can increase the risk of pregnancy loss and adverse pregnancy outcomes, **spontaneous abortion** is not the most characteristic complication. - **Microcephaly** and other structural brain abnormalities are the defining features of congenital Zika syndrome and are more specifically documented. *Pre-eclampsia* - **Pre-eclampsia** is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage. - It has no direct causal link to **Zika virus infection**.

Question 1123: What is the most common type of ovarian tumor that occurs during pregnancy?

A. Dermoid cyst (Correct Answer)
B. Serous cystadenoma
C. Mucinous cystadenoma
D. Endometrioma

Explanation: ***Dermoid cyst*** - **Dermoid cysts**, also known as mature cystic teratomas, are the most common type of **germ cell tumor** and are frequently found during pregnancy due to their benign nature and common occurrence in reproductive-aged women. - They are composed of **multiple tissue types** (e.g., skin, hair, teeth, bone) derived from all three germ layers, and can cause symptoms like pelvic pain or be incidentally discovered during routine prenatal imaging. *Serous cystadenoma* - While **serous cystadenomas** are common **epithelial ovarian tumors**, they are not as prevalent as dermoid cysts during pregnancy. - They are typically benign and filled with clear, watery fluid, often presenting as unilocular cysts. *Mucinous cystadenoma* - **Mucinous cystadenomas** are another type of **epithelial ovarian tumor** filled with thick, gelatinous fluid, but are less common than dermoid cysts in pregnant women. - They can grow to be very large, occasionally causing abdominal distension and discomfort. *Endometrioma* - **Endometriomas** are a type of ovarian cyst formed by **endometriosis**, where endometrial-like tissue grows on the ovary. - While they can be found in women of reproductive age, they are generally less common than dermoid cysts as incidentally discovered ovarian masses during pregnancy.

Question 1124: Which condition is associated with an increased risk of developing placenta accreta?

A. Prior cesarean delivery (Correct Answer)
B. Multiparity
C. Maternal anemia
D. Advanced maternal age

Explanation: ***Prior cesarean delivery*** - A previous **cesarean delivery** significantly increases the risk of placenta accreta due to scarring of the uterine wall, which can lead to abnormal placental implantation. - The scar tissue from a C-section can compromise the integrity of the decidua basalis, allowing trophoblasts to invade deeper into the myometrium. *Multiparity* - While **multiparity** can be a risk factor for some placental complications (e.g., placenta previa), it is less directly or strongly associated with placenta accreta compared to a prior cesarean delivery. - The primary mechanism of increased accreta risk is uterine scarring, which is not inherently caused by multiple pregnancies alone. *Maternal anemia* - **Maternal anemia** is a common pregnancy complication but does not independently increase the risk of placenta accreta. - It is often managed with iron supplementation and is more associated with adverse neonatal outcomes or the need for blood transfusions. *Advanced maternal age* - **Advanced maternal age** (typically over 35 years) is a risk factor for various pregnancy complications, including gestational hypertension, diabetes, and chromosomal abnormalities. - However, its direct association with placenta accreta is weaker and often confounded by other factors like increased rates of assisted reproductive technology or prior uterine surgeries in older mothers.

Question 1125: What is the primary treatment for a pregnant woman diagnosed with symptomatic cholelithiasis?

A. Oral bile acid therapy
B. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy (Correct Answer)
C. ERCP for bile duct complications
D. Observation and symptom management

Explanation: ***Laparoscopic cholecystectomy*** - For **symptomatic cholelithiasis** in pregnancy, **laparoscopic cholecystectomy** is the **primary definitive treatment** based on current guidelines from ACOG and SAGES. - Symptomatic disease (recurrent biliary colic, persistent pain) requires surgical intervention to prevent complications such as **acute cholecystitis**, **pancreatitis**, or **cholangitis**. - The **second trimester** is the preferred time for surgery, though it can be performed safely in any trimester when indicated. - Laparoscopic approach is safe during pregnancy with appropriate modifications and has lower morbidity than open cholecystectomy. *Observation and symptom management* - Conservative management with observation and symptom control is appropriate only for **asymptomatic cholelithiasis** discovered incidentally during pregnancy. - For **symptomatic** disease, conservative management often fails, leading to recurrent symptoms, emergency surgery, and higher complication rates. - The question specifically states "symptomatic" disease, which requires active surgical intervention rather than observation alone. *Oral bile acid therapy* - **Ursodeoxycholic acid** is used to dissolve small cholesterol gallstones in non-pregnant patients with functioning gallbladders. - It has **limited efficacy** for symptomatic gallstones and is not first-line treatment during pregnancy. - This therapy requires months to years to work and is not suitable for managing acute symptomatic disease. *ERCP for bile duct complications* - **ERCP (Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography)** is reserved for complications involving the **bile duct**, such as **choledocholithiasis** (stones in common bile duct) or **cholangitis**. - It is not indicated for uncomplicated **gallbladder** stones (cholelithiasis) and carries procedural risks including radiation exposure and pancreatitis. - ERCP may be needed as an adjunct if bile duct obstruction is present, but cholecystectomy remains the definitive treatment for the gallbladder disease.

Question 1126: A 29-year-old G2P1 woman at 36 weeks of gestation presents with severe preeclampsia. Her blood pressure is 170/110 mmHg despite antihypertensive treatment, and she is experiencing a headache and visual disturbances. What is the next step in management?

A. Continue antihypertensive treatment and monitor closely
B. Administer corticosteroids and delay delivery
C. Immediate induction of labor or cesarean delivery (Correct Answer)
D. Increase the dose of antihypertensive medications

Explanation: ***Immediate induction of labor or cesarean delivery*** - This patient presents with **severe preeclampsia** at 36 weeks of gestation with symptoms of headache and visual disturbances, which are signs of **end-organ damage** and impending eclampsia. - At this gestational age (≥ 34 weeks), **delivery is the definitive treatment** for severe preeclampsia to prevent maternal and fetal complications, even if the blood pressure is not perfectly controlled, as maternal stability is paramount. *Continue antihypertensive treatment and monitor closely* - While **antihypertensives** are important for blood pressure control, simply continuing and monitoring without definitive action is insufficient for severe preeclampsia with signs of end-organ involvement at 36 weeks. - This approach risks progression to **eclampsia, stroke**, or other severe maternal and fetal morbidities. *Administer corticosteroids and delay delivery* - **Corticosteroids** (e.g., betamethasone or dexamethasone) are administered to promote fetal lung maturity, typically for gestations **less than 34 weeks**. - At 36 weeks, the benefits of corticosteroids are minimal, and delaying delivery in severe preeclampsia increases maternal risk unnecessarily. *Increase the dose of antihypertensive medications* - While optimizing **blood pressure control** is crucial, simply increasing antihypertensive medications does not address the underlying pathology of preeclampsia. - In cases of severe preeclampsia with maternal symptoms at **36 weeks**, delivery is indicated regardless of optimal blood pressure control.

Question 1127: Which condition is characterized by high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and a 'snowstorm' pattern on ultrasound?

A. Complete hydatidiform mole (Correct Answer)
B. Partial hydatidiform mole
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Missed abortion

Explanation: ***Complete hydatidiform mole*** - This condition is characterized by **abnormally high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)** due to the proliferation of trophoblastic tissue. - The classic ultrasound finding is a uterine cavity filled with numerous small cysts, creating a distinctive **"snowstorm" or "grape-like cluster" appearance** without a fetal pole or amniotic sac. *Partial hydatidiform mole* - While it also involves elevated hCG and abnormal placental tissue, the hCG levels are typically **lower than in a complete mole** and often fall within the range of a normal pregnancy. - Ultrasound may show a **fetal pole (often malformed)** and amniotic sac, along with focal hydropic villi, which does not present as a classic "snowstorm" pattern. *Ectopic pregnancy* - In an ectopic pregnancy, hCG levels are usually **elevated but often lower than expected for gestational age** and may plateau or rise slowly, not reaching the extremely high levels seen in a complete mole. - Ultrasound characteristically shows an **empty uterus** and often an **adnexal mass** (gestational sac or complex mass in the fallopian tube), not a "snowstorm" appearance within the uterine cavity. *Missed abortion* - In a missed abortion, hCG levels typically **decline or plateau** after initial elevation as the pregnancy is no longer viable. - Ultrasound findings include a **gestational sac with no fetal heart activity** or a fetal pole that is smaller than expected for gestational age, without the proliferative molar tissue or "snowstorm" pattern.

Question 1128: A 24-year-old woman, G1P0, at 32 weeks of gestation presents with a sudden onset of severe, localized abdominal pain and vaginal spotting. Examination reveals a tender, rigid abdomen. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Uterine rupture
B. Placental abruption (Correct Answer)
C. Labor onset
D. Urinary tract infection

Explanation: ***Placental abruption*** - The sudden onset of **severe, localized abdominal pain**, **vaginal spotting**, and a **tender, rigid abdomen** in a pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation are classic signs of placental abruption. - This condition involves the **premature separation of the placenta** from the uterine wall, leading to bleeding and uterine hypertonus. *Uterine rupture* - While it also presents with sudden severe pain, a **uterus rupture** often leads to signs of maternal shock and fetal distress, and the abdomen might be soft or have palpable fetal parts, which is not described. - It usually occurs in women with a history of **previous uterine surgery or trauma**, and there is no such history given. *Labor onset* - **Labor onset** typically involves rhythmic contractions and progressive cervical changes, which are usually not associated with a continuously rigid and tender abdomen between contractions. - Vaginal bleeding in labor is usually minimal and different from the spotting associated with abruption. *Urinary tract infection* - A **urinary tract infection (UTI)** would present with symptoms such as dysuria, urgency, frequency, and suprapubic discomfort; it would not cause severe, localized abdominal pain with a rigid abdomen. - A UTI is usually confirmed by urinalysis and culture, which would not explain the described acute abdominal findings.

Question 1129: Which medication is considered the first-line treatment for managing hypertension during pregnancy?

A. ACE inhibitors
B. Beta-blockers
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Methyldopa (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Methyldopa*** - **Methyldopa** is considered a **first-line treatment for chronic hypertension during pregnancy** and has the **longest safety record** with extensive data on maternal and fetal outcomes. - It works as a central alpha-2 adrenergic agonist, reducing sympathetic outflow and thereby **lowering blood pressure** without compromising uteroplacental blood flow. - While **labetalol** and **nifedipine** are also considered first-line agents, **methyldopa** is often preferred when a **long-term oral agent** is needed, particularly in resource-limited settings, and is specifically recommended by WHO guidelines. *ACE inhibitors* - **ACE inhibitors** are **absolutely contraindicated** during pregnancy, especially in the second and third trimesters, due to their association with **fetal renal abnormalities**, oligohydramnios, and **renal dysgenesis**. - Their use can lead to **fetal growth restriction**, **pulmonary hypoplasia**, **skull hypoplasia**, and **fetal/neonatal death**. *Beta-blockers* - **Labetalol** (a selective beta-blocker) is also considered a **first-line agent** for hypertension in pregnancy alongside methyldopa and is often preferred for acute management or when rapid control is needed. - However, in the context of chronic hypertension requiring long-term oral therapy, **methyldopa** has the most extensive safety data spanning decades. - Atenolol should be avoided due to associations with **fetal growth restriction**. *Calcium channel blockers* - **Nifedipine** (long-acting) is another **first-line option** for hypertension in pregnancy, particularly useful for **acute severe hypertension** and as an alternative when methyldopa is not tolerated. - While equally effective, it may be considered an **alternative first-line agent** rather than the primary choice for chronic management in some guidelines.

Question 1130: What is the most recommended preventive measure for a pregnant woman at high risk of preterm birth due to a short cervix?

A. Progesterone therapy (Correct Answer)
B. Strict bed rest
C. Regular prenatal check-ups
D. Cerclage (cervical stitch)

Explanation: ***Progesterone therapy*** - **Progesterone therapy** is the **first-line recommended preventive measure** for pregnant women with a short cervix (<25mm before 24 weeks) identified on ultrasound. - **Vaginal progesterone** has been shown in multiple randomized controlled trials (including the PREGNANT trial) to significantly reduce preterm birth rates in women with a sonographically short cervix. - Progesterone works by maintaining **uterine quiescence**, reducing inflammation, and preventing premature cervical changes. - It is non-invasive, well-tolerated, and has an excellent safety profile for both mother and fetus. *Cerclage (cervical stitch)* - **Cerclage** is a surgical intervention reserved for specific high-risk subgroups, not the first-line measure for all women with short cervix. - Indications include: history of **three or more prior spontaneous preterm births** (history-indicated), or short cervix **plus** a history of prior spontaneous preterm birth (ultrasound-indicated cerclage). - For women with short cervix alone (no prior preterm birth history), cerclage has **not been shown to be superior** to progesterone and carries surgical risks including rupture of membranes, infection, and bleeding. - Cerclage is more invasive and is not the most recommended preventive measure for isolated short cervix. *Strict bed rest* - **Strict bed rest** has not been shown in evidence-based studies to effectively prevent preterm birth and can lead to adverse maternal effects including **thromboembolism**, **muscle atrophy**, and **psychological stress**. - Current clinical guidelines do not support bed rest as a primary intervention for preventing preterm labor. *Regular prenatal check-ups* - **Regular prenatal check-ups** are essential for monitoring pregnancy and identifying risk factors like short cervix, but they do not directly prevent preterm birth. - While check-ups enable early detection and risk stratification, a specific intervention like progesterone therapy is needed to actively reduce the risk of preterm birth in women with short cervix.

Practice by Chapter

Fetal Assessment Techniques

Practice Questions

Hypertensive Disorders in Pregnancy

Practice Questions

Intrauterine Growth Restriction

Practice Questions

Multiple Gestation

Practice Questions

Rh Isoimmunization and Other Blood Group Incompatibilities

Practice Questions

Intrauterine Fetal Therapy

Practice Questions

Prenatal Diagnosis and Genetic Counseling

Practice Questions

Placental Abnormalities

Practice Questions

Preterm Labor and Delivery

Practice Questions

Management of Medical Disorders in Pregnancy

Practice Questions

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