Labor and Delivery — MCQs

Labor and Delivery Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1021: In an emergency cesarean section, a parturient with eclampsia develops sudden hypoxia and hypotension. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Amniotic fluid embolism (Correct Answer)
C. Aspiration pneumonitis
D. Acute respiratory distress syndrome

Explanation: ***Amniotic fluid embolism*** - The sudden onset of **hypoxia** and **hypotension** during a cesarean section in a parturient, especially with **eclampsia**, is highly suggestive of an amniotic fluid embolism. - This catastrophic event occurs when **amniotic fluid** enters the maternal circulation, leading to systemic shock, acute respiratory distress, coagulopathy, and often cardiac arrest. *Pulmonary embolism* - While pulmonary embolism can cause sudden **hypoxia** and **hypotension**, it is less likely to present with the rapid and severe systemic collapse typically seen with amniotic fluid embolism in this context. - Risk factors for pulmonary embolism include hypercoagulability, which is enhanced in pregnancy, but the **peripartum setting** points more strongly to an amniotic fluid embolism. *Aspiration pneumonitis* - **Aspiration pneumonitis** would typically present predominantly with **respiratory distress** and coughing, potentially leading to hypoxia, but less commonly with such immediate and severe hypotension. - It results from the inhalation of gastric contents, which can occur during general anesthesia but doesn't fully explain the complete clinical picture of profound **cardiovascular collapse**. *Acute respiratory distress syndrome* - **ARDS** is a syndrome of diffuse lung injury leading to severe **hypoxia** and reduced lung compliance, but it usually develops over hours to days. - The sudden onset of symptoms during the procedure makes ARDS as the primary immediate event less likely, though it can be a **secondary complication** of amniotic fluid embolism.

Question 1022: During labor, continuous fetal heart rate monitoring is performed. Which of the following indicates fetal distress?

A. Fetal heart rate of 120 bpm
B. Late decelerations (Correct Answer)
C. Accelerations
D. Moderate variability

Explanation: ***Late decelerations*** - These are a sign of **uteroplacental insufficiency**, where there is insufficient blood flow from the uterus to the placenta, leading to fetal hypoxemia and acidosis. - They are characterized by a gradual decrease in fetal heart rate that begins after the peak of the contraction and returns to baseline only after the contraction has ended. *Fetal heart rate of 120 bpm* - A fetal heart rate of 120 bpm is within the **normal range** (typically 110-160 bpm) and does not, by itself, indicate fetal distress. - Isolated heart rate values must be interpreted in the context of other monitoring parameters like variability and presence of decelerations. *Accelerations* - **Accelerations** are abrupt increases in fetal heart rate above the baseline (at least 15 bpm above baseline, lasting at least 15 seconds) and are an **indicator of fetal well-being**. - Their presence usually suggests a well-oxygenated fetus and a reassuring fetal status. *Moderate variability* - **Moderate variability** (amplitude range of 6-25 bpm) is considered a key sign of a **healthy and well-oxygenated fetal brain** and autonomic nervous system. - It is a reassuring finding and typically rules out significant fetal distress.

Question 1023: A primigravida at term is assessed using the Bishop's score. Which of the following parameters is not included in the Bishop's score?

A. Cervical effacement
B. Fetal station
C. Fetal heart rate (Correct Answer)
D. Cervical dilation

Explanation: ***Fetal heart rate*** - **Fetal heart rate is NOT part of the Bishop's score** and is the correct answer to this question. - The Bishop's score is a pre-labor scoring system used to assess cervical readiness for induction of labor. - It includes only **five parameters**: cervical dilation, cervical effacement, cervical consistency, cervical position, and fetal station. - Fetal heart rate is assessed separately as part of fetal wellbeing monitoring but does not contribute to the Bishop's score. *Cervical effacement* - **Cervical effacement** (thinning of the cervix) is a key component of the Bishop's score. - It indicates cervical ripeness and is expressed as a percentage (0-80%+ = 0-3 points). *Fetal station* - **Fetal station** measures the descent of the fetal presenting part relative to the maternal ischial spines. - It is scored from -3 to +3 and contributes to the Bishop's score (0-3 points). *Cervical dilation* - **Cervical dilation** is a primary component measuring cervical opening in centimeters. - It is the most heavily weighted parameter in predicting successful induction (0-10 cm = 0-3 points).

Question 1024: Which fetal monitoring method provides the most comprehensive evaluation of fetal well-being during labor?

A. Intermittent auscultation
B. External fetal monitoring
C. Internal fetal monitoring (Correct Answer)
D. Ultrasound

Explanation: ***Internal fetal monitoring*** - **Internal fetal monitoring** (e.g., **fetal scalp electrode** and **intrauterine pressure catheter**) provides direct and continuous measurement of **fetal heart rate** and **uterine contractions**, offering the most precise data. - This method is particularly useful in high-risk pregnancies or when external monitoring is inconclusive, allowing for early detection of **fetal distress**. *Intermittent auscultation* - **Intermittent auscultation** involves listening to the fetal heart rate at regular intervals, which is suitable for low-risk pregnancies but provides only a **snapshot** of fetal well-being, potentially missing subtle changes. - It does not provide information on **uterine contraction strength** or **variability** in fetal heart rate. *External fetal monitoring* - **External fetal monitoring** (e.g., **cardiotocography**) uses transducers placed on the maternal abdomen to estimate **fetal heart rate** and **uterine activity**, but can be affected by **maternal movement** or **obesity**. - While continuous, its accuracy is **inferior to internal monitoring**, especially in assessing the true intensity of contractions or in cases of fetal malposition. *Ultrasound* - **Ultrasound** is primarily used for **fetal anatomical assessment**, **growth evaluation**, and **biophysical profile** determination, but it is not a primary continuous monitoring method during labor. - It provides **static images** or **intermittent assessments** rather than continuous real-time data on fetal heart rate patterns or uterine contractions, which are crucial for labor monitoring.

Question 1025: A 30-year-old woman in labor presents with sudden onset of chest pain and shortness of breath. Which condition should be suspected?

A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Amniotic fluid embolism (Correct Answer)
C. Pneumonia
D. Pericarditis

Explanation: ***Amniotic fluid embolism*** - Sudden onset of **chest pain** and **shortness of breath** in a woman in labor is a classic presentation of **amniotic fluid embolism** due to the sudden entry of amniotic fluid into the maternal circulation. - This condition can rapidly lead to **cardiovascular collapse**, respiratory distress, and **disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)**. *Pulmonary embolism* - While pulmonary embolism can cause sudden chest pain and shortness of breath, it typically occurs due to a **thrombus** and is more common **postpartum** or in patients with risk factors like hypercoagulability. - Unlike amniotic fluid embolism, it does not typically present with the rapid onset of **DIC** or severe allergic-like reaction. *Pneumonia* - Pneumonia usually presents with a more gradual onset of symptoms such as **cough, fever, and chills**, along with shortness of breath. - It is unlikely to cause a sudden, acute event of severe chest pain and respiratory collapse in a laboring woman without prior symptoms. *Pericarditis* - Pericarditis is characterized by **pleuritic chest pain** that often worsens with inspiration and lying flat, and improves by leaning forward. - It is not typically associated with sudden, severe shortness of breath or the systemic collapse seen in amniotic fluid embolism, and is not specifically linked to labor.

Question 1026: The image shows different types of placenta in relation to the internal cervical os. Identify the type of placenta previa shown in the highlighted/marked image.

A. Type I (low-lying).
B. Type II (marginal). (Correct Answer)
C. Type III (partial).
D. Type IV (complete).

Explanation: ***Type II (marginal)*** - In **marginal placenta previa**, the placenta reaches the **edge of the internal cervical os** but does not cover it. - This is classified as a minor placenta previa, as depicted in the provided image. *Type I (low-lying)* - A **low-lying placenta** is when the placental edge is within **2 cm of the internal cervical os** but does not reach it. - The image for low-lying placenta shows the edge 1-20 mm from the os, not directly at the edge as in marginal. *Type III (partial)* - **Partial placenta previa** occurs when the placenta **partially covers the internal cervical os**. - The image labeled "Partial placenta previa" illustrates the placenta covering only a portion of the os, which is a major previa. *Type IV (complete)* - **Complete placenta previa** involves the placenta **completely covering the internal cervical os**. - The image labeled "Complete placenta previa" clearly shows the placenta entirely obstructing the os, which is a major previa.

Question 1027: Female with 41 wk gestation confirmed by radiological investigation, very sure of her LMP, no uterine contractions, no effacement and no dilatation. What should be done to induce labor?

A. PGE1 tab (Correct Answer)
B. PGE2 gel
C. PGF2alpha
D. Intracervical foley’s

Explanation: ***PGE1 tab*** - **Misoprostol (PGE1)** is an effective agent for **cervical ripening** and labor induction in cases of an unfavorable cervix (no effacement, no dilatation). - It is cost-effective, stable at room temperature, and widely used in resource-limited settings. - Can be administered orally or vaginally with good efficacy for cervical ripening at term. - In this post-term pregnancy with unfavorable cervix, pharmacological ripening is appropriate. *PGE2 gel* - **PGE2 (dinoprostone)** gel or cervical insert is also an effective option for cervical ripening. - Both PGE1 and PGE2 are acceptable first-line agents; the choice may depend on availability, cost, and institutional protocols. - PGE2 formulations are FDA-approved and widely used, though may be more expensive than misoprostol. *PGF2alpha* - **PGF2alpha (carboprost)** is primarily used for the **management of postpartum hemorrhage** due to its potent myometrial contracting effect. - It is **not indicated** for induction of labor at term as its strong uterine contractions can cause excessive uterine stimulation and fetal distress. *Intracervical foley's* - An **intracervical Foley catheter** is a mechanical method that causes cervical ripening through direct pressure and stimulation of local prostaglandin release. - It is an evidence-based alternative with lower risk of uterine hyperstimulation compared to pharmacological methods. - Both mechanical and pharmacological methods are acceptable first-line options for cervical ripening in post-term pregnancy with unfavorable cervix.

Question 1028: A partogram shows a laboring woman with a prolonged second stage of labor and a fetal heart rate of 120 bpm. Based on this information, what condition is most likely indicated?

A. Uterine rupture
B. Cephalopelvic Disproportion (CPD) (Correct Answer)
C. Prolonged labor due to weak uterine contractions
D. Prolonged labor due to maternal fatigue

Explanation: ***Cephalopelvic Disproportion (CPD)*** - A **prolonged second stage** of labor, especially in the absence of obvious uterine inertia, strongly suggests a mismatch between the **fetal head size** and the maternal pelvis. - The fetal heart rate of 120 bpm is within a normal range, indicating the fetus is currently tolerating labor but does not rule out a mechanical obstruction. *Uterine rupture* - A uterine rupture is typically characterized by **sudden, severe abdominal pain**, **vaginal bleeding**, and often **fetal distress** (e.g., severe decelerations or bradycardia). - The given fetal heart rate of 120 bpm, while normal, does not align with the acute fetal compromise expected with a uterine rupture. *Prolonged labor due to maternal fatigue.* - While maternal fatigue can contribute to a prolonged labor, it usually manifests as **ineffective pushing efforts** rather than a fundamental obstruction in descent. - A normal fetal heart rate with a prolonged second stage still points to a mechanical issue that fatigue alone would not explain. *Prolonged labor due to weak uterine contractions.* - Weak uterine contractions (uterine inertia) would primarily lead to a **prolonged first stage** of labor or *arrest of dilation*, where the cervix fails to open adequately. - A prolonged second stage is more about fetal descent and expulsion, where contractions are still present but may be ineffective against an obstruction.

Question 1029: What is the next step in the management of shoulder dystocia after the McRoberts maneuver?

A. Perform internal rotation maneuvers
B. Consider emergency c-section
C. Perform a 90-degree rotation of the posterior shoulder
D. Apply suprapubic pressure (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Apply suprapubic pressure*** - After performing the **McRoberts maneuver**, the next recommended step in managing shoulder dystocia is to apply **suprapubic pressure**. - This maneuver is performed by an assistant who applies pressure with the heel of their hand directly above the maternal pubic bone, in a downward and lateral direction, to dislodge the anterior shoulder from under the symphysis pubis. *Perform a 90-degree rotation of the posterior shoulder* - This describes the Woods' screw maneuver, which is typically attempted after McRoberts and suprapubic pressure have failed. - The Woods' screw maneuver involves rotating the fetal shoulder, usually by trying to rotate the posterior aspect of the fetal shoulder anteriorly, to reduce the bisacromial diameter. *Consider emergency c-section* - A **cesarean section** is generally not considered an immediate option for an actively occurring shoulder dystocia during a vaginal delivery, as it is a time-sensitive emergency. - While a C-section would resolve the dystocia, it would require significant time to prepare and execute, which would risk fetal hypoxia and injury when the head is already delivered. *Perform internal rotation maneuvers* - This statement is too general; internal rotation maneuvers, such as the Woods' screw or Rubin maneuvers, are indeed used but typically after suprapubic pressure. - Rubin II maneuver involves rotating the anterior shoulder to a more oblique position, and the Woods' screw maneuver involves rotating the posterior shoulder. Both are attempted if suprapubic pressure and McRoberts prove ineffective.

Question 1030: What is the normal uterine blood flow at term?

A. 50-75 ml/min
B. 150-200 ml/min
C. 350-400 ml/min
D. 500-700 ml/min (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***500-700 ml/min*** - At term, the uterus receives a substantial blood supply to meet the demands of the **growing fetus** and **placenta**. - This flow represents approximately **10-15% of the total cardiac output** in pregnant women. *50-75 ml/min* - This value is significantly **too low** for uterine blood flow at term. - Such a low flow would be insufficient to sustain fetal growth and development, leading to **fetal compromise**. *150-200 ml/min* - While an increase from non-pregnant levels, this value is still **below the normal range** for a full-term pregnancy. - It would not adequately perfuse the **placental bed** and transfer necessary nutrients and oxygen. *350-400 ml/min* - This range represents a considerable increase but is still somewhat **lower than the typical uterine blood flow at term**. - Uterine blood flow continues to increase throughout pregnancy, peaking in the **third trimester**.

Practice by Chapter

Physiology of Labor

Practice Questions

Stages of Labor and Normal Progression

Practice Questions

Fetal Monitoring Techniques

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Pain Management in Labor

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Induction and Augmentation of Labor

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Operative Delivery (Forceps and Vacuum)

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Cesarean Section: Indications and Techniques

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Dystocia and Abnormal Labor Patterns

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Obstetric Emergencies

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Postpartum Hemorrhage Management

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