Gynecological Disorders Practice Questions

Q: For the treatment of a woman with frothy vaginal discharge with fishy smell the following are essential except:

Washing of private parts with antiseptics /disinfectants. ***Washing of private parts with antiseptics/disinfectants*** - This is **NOT recommended** and can actually be harmful for managing vaginal discharge - Antiseptics or disinfectants can **disrupt the normal vaginal flora**, potentially worsening the condition or leading to other infections - Such practices can cause irritation, further alter vaginal pH, and interfere with natural protective mechanisms - Vaginal hygiene should involve gentle external cleaning with plain water only *Metronidazole* (Essential for treatment) - **Metronidazole** is the drug of choice for treating **trichomoniasis** (which causes frothy discharge) and **bacterial vaginosis** (which causes fishy smell) - It is effective against anaerobic bacteria and Trichomonas vaginalis parasite - Typically given as 2g single dose or 400-500mg twice daily for 5-7 days - This is the **cornerstone of treatment** and absolutely essential *Partner treatment* (Essential for treatment) - For vaginitis caused by **Trichomonas vaginalis**, treating **sexual partner(s)** simultaneously is crucial to prevent re-infection - Untreated partners act as a reservoir for infection, leading to a **ping-pong effect** and cycle of re-infection - Both partners should complete treatment and abstain from intercourse until cure is achieved - Essential for eradicating infection from the sexual network *Use of condom by partner* (Essential for treatment) - While primarily a **preventive measure**, condom use during and after treatment helps prevent re-infection - Reduces exposure to external flora that might disrupt vaginal environment - However, **abstinence during active treatment** is actually preferred over condom use - Among the essential measures listed, this is the least critical for immediate treatment, though still important for comprehensive management

Q: Therapeutic options for a 30 year old woman suffering from severe pain due to endometriosis are the following except:

Sildenafil. ***Sildenafil*** - **Sildenafil** is a **vasodilator** primarily used for **erectile dysfunction** and **pulmonary hypertension**. - It has no established role in the **endocrine** or **anti-inflammatory** management required for endometriosis pain. *Mirena* - **Mirena** (levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system) is an effective treatment for endometriosis pain because it releases **progestin**, which **suppresses endometrial growth** and inflammation. - It helps reduce both **dysmenorrhea** and **chronic pelvic pain** associated with endometriosis. *Letrozole* - **Letrozole** is an **aromatase inhibitor** that reduces **estrogen synthesis**, which is crucial because endometriosis is an **estrogen-dependent** condition. - By lowering estrogen levels, it can significantly **reduce pain** and the progression of endometrial implants. *Oral contraceptives* - **Combined oral contraceptives (COCs)** are a common and effective first-line treatment for endometriosis pain, as they create a **pseudo-pregnancy state** and **suppress ovulation**. - This suppression leads to a reduction in **estrogen-driven endometrial growth** and subsequent pain.

Q: All of the following are the features of functional ovarian cyst EXCEPT:

Usually symptomatic. ***Correct Answer: Usually symptomatic*** - Functional ovarian cysts are typically **asymptomatic** and discovered incidentally during pelvic examination or imaging studies. - Most patients have no symptoms; when symptoms occur, they are usually mild (pelvic pressure, dull ache). - Being "usually symptomatic" is **NOT a feature** of functional cysts, making this the correct answer to this EXCEPT question. *Incorrect: Usually < 7 cm in diameter* - Most functional ovarian cysts (follicular cysts, corpus luteum cysts) are relatively small, typically measuring **less than 5-7 cm** in diameter. - Cysts larger than 7 cm may warrant further evaluation to rule out neoplastic etiology. - This **IS a feature** of functional cysts. *Incorrect: Unilocular* - Functional cysts are characteristically **simple in structure**: unilocular (single-chambered), thin-walled, containing clear anechoic fluid. - Complex features (septations, solid components, thick walls) suggest neoplastic or other pathologic cysts. - This **IS a feature** of functional cysts. *Incorrect: Spontaneous regression occurs* - Functional ovarian cysts are by definition **transient** and typically resolve spontaneously within **1-3 menstrual cycles** without intervention. - This self-limiting nature is a key characteristic distinguishing them from persistent or neoplastic cysts. - This **IS a feature** of functional cysts.

Q: Which one of the following is NOT a feature of Candida Vaginitis?

Metronidazole is the treatment of choice. ***Metronidazole is the treatment of choice*** - **Metronidazole** is the drug of choice for **bacterial vaginosis** and **trichomoniasis**, not candidal vaginitis. - The primary treatment for **Candida vaginitis** involves **azole antifungal agents** (e.g., fluconazole, miconazole, clotrimazole). *Yeast-buds and pseudohyphae forms can be seen under the microscope* - Microscopic examination of vaginal discharge revealing **yeast buds** and **pseudohyphae** is a classic diagnostic finding for **Candida vaginitis**. - This observation directly confirms the presence of **Candida** organisms. *Pruritus is out of proportion to discharge* - In **Candida vaginitis**, **intense pruritus** (itching) is a hallmark symptom, often severe and disproportionate to the amount of vaginal discharge. - This characteristic itching is due to the inflammatory response triggered by the Candida infection. *Discharge is thick and curdy* - The typical vaginal discharge associated with **Candida vaginitis** is often described as **thick, white, and "cottage cheese-like"** or curdy. - This distinct appearance is a key clinical indicator of a yeast infection.

Q: A 39 year old nulliparous female has presented to Gynaecology OPD with complaint of post-coital bleeding for past six months. The first investigation to be offered to this female will be

Pap smear. ***Pap smear*** - **Post-coital bleeding** is a classic symptom of **cervical pathology**, including **cervical cancer**, which a Pap smear is designed to detect. - As a **screening tool**, a Pap smear is the appropriate initial investigation to broadly assess for abnormal cervical cells. *Hysteroscopy* - Hysteroscopy is an invasive procedure primarily used to visualize the **uterine cavity** and would be considered if concerns about intrauterine pathology arise after initial screening. - It's not the first-line investigation for post-coital bleeding, which typically points to a **cervical or vaginal source**. *Ultrasound* - **Pelvic ultrasound** is useful for evaluating uterine, ovarian, and adnexal pathologies but is less effective for directly visualizing the **cervical surface** where post-coital bleeding often originates. - It would be considered if there are other symptoms suggesting uterine or ovarian issues that aren't typically associated with post-coital bleeding alone. *Endometrial biopsy* - An **endometrial biopsy** is indicated for investigating **abnormal uterine bleeding** originating from the endometrium, such as in cases of suspected **endometrial hyperplasia** or cancer. - Post-coital bleeding is generally not an indication for an initial endometrial biopsy unless other findings suggest an endometrial origin.

Q: A 25-year-old woman presents to the Gynaecology OPD with complaints of abdominal pain and heavy menstrual bleeding. On examination, there is a mass arising from the hypogastrium corresponding to 16 weeks gravid uterus. Her urine pregnancy test is negative. The most likely diagnosis is

Uterine fibroid. ***Uterine fibroid*** - The combination of **heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia)**, **abdominal pain**, and a **palpable mass in the hypogastrium** corresponding to a 16-week gravid uterus in a young woman with a **negative pregnancy test** is classic for uterine fibroid. - Fibroids (leiomyomas) are **benign smooth muscle tumors** of the uterus that can grow to significant size, causing **bulk-related symptoms** and **abnormal uterine bleeding**. - This represents a **large symptomatic fibroid** with the classic triad: menorrhagia, pelvic mass, and pelvic pressure/pain. *Endometriosis* - While endometriosis can cause **cyclical pelvic pain** and **dysmenorrhea**, it typically does not present as a large, palpable mass mimicking a 16-week gravid uterus. - Endometriomas (chocolate cysts) can form masses but are usually **adnexal** rather than central, and menorrhagia is not the primary symptom. *Ovarian tumour* - An ovarian tumor could present with an **abdominal mass** and **pain**, but heavy menstrual bleeding is not a typical feature unless it's a **hormonally active tumor** (rare). - The description of the mass specifically corresponding to a "**gravid uterus**" suggests a **uterine origin** rather than an adnexal mass. - Ovarian masses are typically felt **laterally** or can be more mobile. *Pelvic inflammatory disease* - PID commonly causes **acute pelvic pain**, **fever**, **vaginal discharge**, and **cervical motion tenderness**, but does not typically manifest as a large, smooth, palpable mass arising from the hypogastrium. - Tubo-ovarian abscesses can form masses but are usually **tender**, **irregular**, and associated with **systemic signs of infection**.

Q: Which of the following are the characteristic features of Meigs' syndrome in a female? 1. Right sided hydrothorax 2. Ascites 3. Genital warts 4. Ovarian fibroma

1, 2 and 4. **1, 2 and 4** - **Meigs' syndrome** is defined by the triad of an **ovarian fibroma** (or other benign ovarian tumor), **ascites**, and **right-sided hydrothorax**. - All three components must be present for a clinical diagnosis of Meigs' syndrome. *1, 3 and 4* - While **right-sided hydrothorax** and an **ovarian fibroma** are components of Meigs' syndrome, **genital warts** are not. - **Genital warts** are caused by Human Papillomavirus (HPV) and are not associated with this syndrome. *2, 3 and 4* - **Ascites** and an **ovarian fibroma** are correctly identified as features, but **genital warts** are not part of Meigs' syndrome. - The syndrome specifically requires the presence of a **pleural effusion (hydrothorax)**, typically on the right side. *1, 2, 3 and 4* - This option mistakenly includes **genital warts**, which are not a feature of Meigs' syndrome. - The core diagnostic criteria are limited to the ovarian tumor, ascites, and hydrothorax.

Q: Which of the following are risk factors for developing pelvic inflammatory disease in females? 1. Use of oral contraception pills 2. Multiple sexual partners 3. Lower socioeconomic status 4. Genetic predisposition

1, 2 and 3. ***1, 2 and 3*** - **Multiple sexual partners** is a well-established major risk factor for PID as it significantly increases exposure to sexually transmitted infections (STIs), particularly *Chlamydia trachomatis* and *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*, which are the primary causative organisms of PID. - **Lower socioeconomic status** is associated with increased PID risk due to reduced access to healthcare services, delayed diagnosis and treatment of STIs, and barriers to preventive care. - **Use of oral contraception pills** has a controversial relationship with PID. While OCPs do not prevent STIs and may be associated with behavioral factors (reduced condom use), the direct relationship remains debated. Some evidence suggests OCPs may actually provide modest protection against ascending infection by thickening cervical mucus. However, this option represents the best available answer among the choices given. *1, 2 and 4* - This incorrectly includes **genetic predisposition**, which is not an established risk factor for PID. PID is primarily an infectious disease driven by behavioral and socioeconomic factors, not genetic susceptibility. *2, 3 and 4* - This incorrectly includes **genetic predisposition** as a risk factor for PID, which lacks evidence-based support. - It also excludes oral contraception pills, making this option incomplete even considering the controversial role of OCPs. *1, 3 and 4* - This incorrectly includes **genetic predisposition** and critically excludes **multiple sexual partners**, which is the most significant and well-established behavioral risk factor for PID. - Missing this key risk factor makes this option clearly incorrect.

Q: The vaginal pH in childbearing age normally ranges between

4 - 5.5. ***4 - 5.5*** - A vaginal pH within the range of **4.0 to 5.5** is considered normal for women of childbearing age, indicating a healthy acidic environment. - This acidic pH is maintained primarily by **Lactobacillus species** bacteria, which produce lactic acid, protecting against pathogenic bacteria. *1 - 2* - A pH range of 1-2 is **extremely acidic** and would be highly corrosive, far outside the physiological range for the vagina. - This level of acidity is typically found in the **stomach**, not the vagina. *7 - 8* - A pH range of 7-8 is considered **alkaline** and suggests an imbalance in the vaginal flora, potentially leading to infections such as **bacterial vaginosis**. - A neutral to alkaline pH is harmful to the normal vaginal microbiota and can promote the growth of opportunistic pathogens. *2.5 - 3.5* - While acidic, a pH of 2.5-3.5 is generally **too low** for a healthy vagina in most women of childbearing age, as the normal range typically starts closer to 4.0. - Although the vagina is acidic, this range is at the **extreme lower end** and might indicate an altered microenvironment.

Q: The second most common site for endometriosis after the ovary is:

Peritoneum of the pouch of Douglas. ***Peritoneum of the pouch of Douglas*** - The **pouch of Douglas** (rectouterine pouch) is the most common site for endometriosis after the ovaries, where endometrial tissue deposits frequently occur. - Due to its dependent position in the pelvis, **shed endometrial cells** from retrograde menstruation are thought to accumulate here. *Round ligaments* - While endometriosis can occur in the round ligaments, it is far **less common** than in the cul-de-sac or on the ovaries. - Endometriotic lesions in this location might mimic other conditions, making diagnosis challenging. *Fallopian tubes* - Endometriosis can affect the fallopian tubes, leading to conditions like **hydrosalpinx** or adhesion formation, but it is not the second most common site. - The tubes are more frequently involved by **pelvic inflammatory disease** or ectopic pregnancy. *Outer surface of uterus* - Endometriosis on the outer surface of the uterus (serosa) is possible, but **less common** than in the ovaries or the pouch of Douglas. - Lesions here can contribute to **adhesions** between the uterus and adjacent structures.

Question 1

For the treatment of a woman with frothy vaginal discharge with fishy smell the following are essential except:

Accepted Answer

Washing of private parts with antiseptics /disinfectants

Answer

Use of condom by partner

Answer

Metronidazole

Answer

Partner treatment

Question 2

Therapeutic options for a 30 year old woman suffering from severe pain due to endometriosis are the following except:

Accepted Answer

Sildenafil

Answer

Mirena

Answer

Letrozole

Answer

Oral contraceptives

Question 3

All of the following are the features of functional ovarian cyst EXCEPT:

Accepted Answer

Usually symptomatic

Answer

Usually < 7 cm in diameter

Answer

Unilocular

Answer

Spontaneous regression occurs

Question 4

Which one of the following is NOT a feature of Candida Vaginitis?

Accepted Answer

Metronidazole is the treatment of choice

Answer

Yeast-buds and pseudohyphae forms can be seen under the microscope

Answer

Pruritus is out of proportion to discharge

Answer

Discharge is thick and curdy

Question 5

A 39 year old nulliparous female has presented to Gynaecology OPD with complaint of post-coital bleeding for past six months. The first investigation to be offered to this female will be

Accepted Answer

Pap smear

Answer

Hysteroscopy

Answer

Ultrasound

Answer

Endometrial biopsy

Question 6

A 25-year-old woman presents to the Gynaecology OPD with complaints of abdominal pain and heavy menstrual bleeding. On examination, there is a mass arising from the hypogastrium corresponding to 16 weeks gravid uterus. Her urine pregnancy test is negative. The most likely diagnosis is

Accepted Answer

Uterine fibroid

Answer

Endometriosis

Answer

Ovarian tumour

Answer

Pelvic inflammatory disease

Question 7

Which of the following are the characteristic features of Meigs' syndrome in a female?

1. Right sided hydrothorax
2. Ascites
3. Genital warts
4. Ovarian fibroma

Accepted Answer

1, 2 and 4

Answer

1, 3 and 4

Answer

2, 3 and 4

Answer

1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 8

Which of the following are risk factors for developing pelvic inflammatory disease in females?

1. Use of oral contraception pills
2. Multiple sexual partners
3. Lower socioeconomic status
4. Genetic predisposition

Accepted Answer

1, 2 and 3

Answer

1, 2 and 4

Answer

2, 3 and 4

Answer

1, 3 and 4

Question 9

The vaginal pH in childbearing age normally ranges between

Accepted Answer

4 - 5.5

Answer

1 - 2

Answer

7 - 8

Answer

2.5 - 3.5

Question 10

The second most common site for endometriosis after the ovary is:

Accepted Answer

Peritoneum of the pouch of Douglas

Answer

Round ligaments

Answer

Fallopian tubes

Answer

Outer surface of uterus

Gynecological Disorders — MCQs

Gynecological Disorders — MCQs

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