Gynecological Disorders Practice Questions

Q: What is the most common symptom present in an undisturbed ectopic pregnancy?

Pain in the lower abdomen. **Explanation:** In an **undisturbed ectopic pregnancy**, the classic clinical triad consists of amenorrhea, abdominal pain, and vaginal bleeding. However, **pain in the lower abdomen** is the most common and consistent symptom, occurring in approximately 95–99% of cases. 1. **Why Pain is the Correct Answer:** The pain is typically dull and localized to the iliac fossa on the affected side. It is caused by the distension of the fallopian tube by the growing conceptus or by tubal contractions attempting to expel the pregnancy. Even before rupture or tubal abortion occurs, this stretching of the tubal serosa triggers visceral pain, making it the most frequent presenting complaint. 2. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Amenorrhea (B):** While a key feature, it is absent in about 25% of cases, as patients may mistake early vaginal bleeding for a normal period. * **Bleeding per vaginum (C):** This occurs in about 75% of cases. It is usually "scanty, dark-colored, and spotting" in nature, resulting from the breakdown of the decidua due to falling progesterone levels. * **Fainting attack (D):** This is a sign of **ruptured** ectopic pregnancy (due to hemoperitoneum and hypovolemia), not an undisturbed one. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Most common site:** Fallopian tube (97%), specifically the **Ampulla** (most common overall). * **Most common site for rupture:** Isthmus (occurs early, around 6–8 weeks). * **Gold Standard Diagnosis:** Transvaginal Ultrasound (TVUS) combined with serial β-hCG levels. * **Arias-Stella Reaction:** Hypersecretory endometrium seen on curettage, suggestive but not diagnostic of ectopic pregnancy.

Q: Danazol used in the treatment of endometriosis causes which of the following changes within the endometrium and endometriosis tissue?

Atrophy. **Explanation:** **Danazol** is a synthetic steroid derived from ethisterone that creates a unique hormonal environment often described as a **"pseudomenopausal state."** **Why Atrophy is the Correct Answer:** Danazol acts through multiple mechanisms to suppress the growth of endometrial tissue: 1. **Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Ovarian (HPO) Axis Suppression:** It inhibits the mid-cycle surge of LH and FSH, leading to a state of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. 2. **Enzyme Inhibition:** It inhibits steroidogenic enzymes in the ovary, directly lowering estrogen levels. 3. **Direct Action:** It binds to androgen and progesterone receptors in the endometrium. The net result of low estrogen and high androgenic activity is the **atrophy** of both the functional layer of the uterine endometrium and ectopic endometriotic implants, leading to symptomatic relief and amenorrhea. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Aplasia:** This refers to the failure of an organ or tissue to develop. Danazol causes regression of existing tissue, not a developmental failure. * **Hyperplasia:** This is the proliferation of cells (often due to unopposed estrogen). Danazol is anti-estrogenic and thus prevents hyperplasia. * **Neoplasia:** This refers to new, uncontrolled abnormal growth (cancer). Danazol is used to treat benign proliferation, not induce malignancy. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Side Effects:** Due to its androgenic nature, Danazol causes weight gain, acne, hirsutism, deepening of the voice (often irreversible), and oily skin. * **Lipid Profile:** It decreases HDL and increases LDL levels. * **Other Uses:** Besides endometriosis, it is used in Hereditary Angioedema (increases C4 levels) and Fibrocystic Breast Disease. * **Contraindication:** It is strictly contraindicated in pregnancy due to the risk of virilization of a female fetus.

Q: What is the cause of acidic pH of the vagina?

Doderlein Bacilli. **Explanation:** The acidic environment of the vagina (normal pH 3.8 to 4.5) is a critical defense mechanism against pathogenic infections. **Why Doderlein Bacilli is correct:** Doderlein bacilli (predominantly *Lactobacillus acidophilus*) are the commensal flora of the vagina. Under the influence of estrogen, the vaginal epithelium thickens and accumulates **glycogen**. Doderlein bacilli metabolize this glycogen into **lactic acid**. This production of lactic acid maintains the low vaginal pH, which inhibits the growth of most other pathogenic bacteria. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Gardnerella (B) & Mobilincus (C):** These are anaerobic bacteria associated with **Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)**. In BV, these organisms replace the Lactobacilli, leading to a decrease in lactic acid and a subsequent **rise in pH (>4.5)**. * **Glycogen (D):** While glycogen is the *substrate* required for the process, it is not the *cause* of the acidity itself. Glycogen must be converted into lactic acid by the bacteria to lower the pH. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Estrogen Dependency:** The acidic pH is only present when estrogen levels are high (puberty to menopause). In prepubertal girls and postmenopausal women, the pH is neutral or alkaline (pH 6–7) due to a lack of glycogen and Lactobacilli. * **Whiff Test:** In Bacterial Vaginosis (alkaline pH), adding 10% KOH to vaginal discharge releases a "fishy odor" due to the volatilization of amines. * **Amniotic Fluid:** The pH of amniotic fluid is alkaline (7.0–7.5). Nitrazine paper turning blue (indicating alkaline pH) is used to diagnose the rupture of membranes.

Q: Endometrial hyperplasia is typically associated with which of the following conditions?

Polycystic ovarian disease. **Explanation:** **Correct Answer: C. Polycystic ovarian disease (PCOS)** The underlying pathophysiology of endometrial hyperplasia is **unopposed estrogen** stimulation. In PCOS, patients experience chronic anovulation. Without ovulation, there is no corpus luteum formation and, consequently, no progesterone production. The endometrium is subjected to continuous, prolonged estrogen stimulation (primarily from the peripheral conversion of androgens to estrone in adipose tissue) without the stabilizing effect of progesterone. This leads to excessive proliferation of the endometrial glands, resulting in hyperplasia and an increased risk of endometrial carcinoma. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Endodermal Sinus Tumor (Yolk Sac Tumor):** This is a highly malignant germ cell tumor characterized by elevated **Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)** and Schiller-Duval bodies. It does not produce estrogen and is not associated with endometrial changes. * **B. Dysgerminoma:** This is the most common malignant germ cell tumor in young women. It is associated with elevated **LDH** and sometimes hCG, but it does not secrete estrogen. * **D. Carcinoma of the Cervix:** This is primarily caused by high-risk **Human Papillomavirus (HPV)** infection (Types 16 and 18). It involves the squamous or glandular cells of the cervix and is unrelated to systemic estrogen levels or endometrial proliferation. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Classification:** The WHO (2014) classifies hyperplasia into two types: Hyperplasia without atypia and Atypical hyperplasia (Endometrial Intraepithelial Neoplasia). * **Risk Factors:** Obesity, Nulliparity, Early menarche/Late menopause, and Estrogen-secreting tumors (e.g., **Granulosa cell tumor**). * **Management:** Progestogens (like Mirena/LNG-IUS) are the mainstay for hyperplasia without atypia, while Hysterectomy is preferred for atypical hyperplasia due to the high risk of coexisting malignancy.

Q: Which of the following is NOT true about fibroids?

They have a least vascular periphery.. **Explanation:** Uterine fibroids (leiomyomas) are benign monoclonal tumors of smooth muscle cells. Understanding their vascular supply and growth patterns is crucial for NEET-PG. **Why Option C is the correct answer (False statement):** Fibroids receive their blood supply from the **periphery**. The arteries form a vascular plexus in the pseudocapsule, and the vessels then penetrate inward toward the center. Consequently, the **center of the fibroid is the least vascular part**, making it the most susceptible to ischemia and subsequent degeneration (e.g., hyaline or cystic degeneration). **Analysis of other options:** * **A. Pseudo-encapsulated:** Fibroids do not have a true anatomical capsule. Instead, they are surrounded by a **pseudocapsule** formed by the compression of surrounding myometrium and areolar tissue. This plane allows for easy enucleation during a myomectomy. * **B. Typically slow-growing:** Fibroids are estrogen-dependent and generally grow slowly during the reproductive years. Rapid growth, especially post-menopause, should raise suspicion for leiomyosarcoma (though this is rare). * **D. Calcifications begin from the periphery:** Calcification (calcareous degeneration) is a late-stage change, often seen in post-menopausal women. It typically starts in the peripheral vessels and moves inward, sometimes creating a "womb stone" appearance on X-ray. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common degeneration:** Hyaline degeneration (65%). * **Degeneration during pregnancy:** Red degeneration (necrobiosis) due to rapid growth and venous thrombosis. * **Most common symptom:** Menorrhagia (heavy menstrual bleeding). * **Medical Management:** GnRH agonists (used pre-operatively to reduce size and vascularity).

Q: Which of the following is NOT a concern when using mifepristone for the treatment of uterine fibroid?

Hirsutism. **Explanation:** Mifepristone is a **Selective Progesterone Receptor Modulator (SPRM)**. Since uterine fibroids are progesterone-dependent tumors, mifepristone effectively reduces their size and associated heavy menstrual bleeding (HMB). **Why Hirsutism is the correct answer:** Hirsutism is a side effect associated with **androgenic** medications (like Danazol). Mifepristone does not have androgenic activity; in fact, it has weak anti-androgenic properties. Therefore, hirsutism is not a concern during its clinical use. **Analysis of other options:** * **Endometrial Hyperplasia:** This is a significant concern. Mifepristone causes "Progesterone Receptor Modulator Associated Endometrial Changes" (**PAEC**). Due to the unopposed action of estrogen on the endometrium (while progesterone receptors are blocked), there is a theoretical risk of endometrial hyperplasia without atypia. * **Vasomotor Symptoms:** While less severe than with GnRH agonists, some patients experience hot flashes due to the alteration of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis. * **Early Pregnancy Termination:** Mifepristone is a potent abortifacient (used in medical abortion up to 63–70 days). Since many women seeking fibroid treatment are of reproductive age, unintended termination of an undiagnosed early pregnancy is a critical clinical concern. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Mechanism in Fibroids:** It inhibits ovulation and causes direct shrinkage of the leiomyoma by inducing apoptosis. * **Dose for Fibroids:** Usually 5–10 mg daily (much lower than the 200 mg used for abortion). * **Amenorrhea:** It is highly effective at inducing amenorrhea (up to 90% of cases), which helps in correcting anemia pre-operatively. * **Key Contraindication:** Known suspected pregnancy and renal failure.

Q: In the following laparoscopic view of the uterus and pelvis, what is the likely diagnosis?

Genital tuberculosis. ***Genital tuberculosis*** - Laparoscopic findings typically show **miliary tubercles**, **peritubal adhesions**, and **caseous nodules** on peritoneal surfaces and fallopian tubes. - Often presents with **chronic pelvic pain**, **menstrual irregularities**, and **infertility** due to tubal obstruction and pelvic adhesions. *Pyogenic infection* - Usually presents with **acute symptoms** like fever, severe pelvic pain, and purulent discharge rather than chronic findings. - Laparoscopic appearance shows **hyperemic tissues** and **purulent collections** without the characteristic tubercles seen in TB. *Fungal infection* - Rarely causes significant **pelvic inflammatory disease** or extensive adhesions visible on laparoscopy. - More commonly presents as **vulvovaginal candidiasis** with localized symptoms rather than deep pelvic involvement. *Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome* - Specifically involves **perihepatic adhesions** ("violin string" adhesions around the liver) due to chlamydial or gonococcal infection. - Does not typically cause the **miliary pattern** and **caseous lesions** characteristic of genital tuberculosis.

Q: A 34-year-old woman has been trying to conceive for 3 years. On pelvic examination, there is a nodular, tender uterosacral ligament, a retroverted but normal-sized uterus, and a right adnexal mass. A recent pelvic ultrasound reveals a 6-cm right complex ovarian mass. Her CA-125 is elevated. What is the initial next step in management?

Laparoscopy with cystectomy. ### Explanation **1. Why Laparoscopy with Cystectomy is Correct:** The clinical presentation—**chronic infertility, tender nodular uterosacral ligaments (pathognomonic), and a retroverted uterus**—strongly suggests **Endometriosis**. The 6-cm complex ovarian mass is likely an **Endometrioma** ("Chocolate cyst"). In a woman of reproductive age desiring fertility, the management of an endometrioma >4 cm is surgical. **Laparoscopy** is the gold standard for both diagnosis and treatment. **Cystectomy** (removal of the cyst wall) is preferred over simple aspiration or drainage because it significantly reduces the rate of recurrence and improves spontaneous pregnancy rates. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **A. GnRH Agonist:** While medical therapy can manage pain, it cannot resolve a large (6 cm) endometrioma and does not improve fertility. * **B. Diagnostic Hysterosalpingography (HSG):** While HSG is part of an infertility workup, it is contraindicated in the presence of an undiagnosed adnexal mass or active pelvic infection/inflammation. The priority here is treating the ovarian pathology. * **D. Laparoscopy and Right Oophorectomy:** This is too aggressive for a 34-year-old desiring pregnancy. Oophorectomy is generally reserved for postmenopausal women or cases where the ovary is completely destroyed or malignancy is suspected. **3. Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Classic Triad of Endometriosis:** Dysmenorrhea, Dyspareunia, and Dyschezia. * **CA-125:** Often mildly elevated in endometriosis (usually Medical suppression.**

Q: Ampullary pregnancy ruptures generally at how many weeks?

8 weeks. **Explanation:** The timing of rupture in an ectopic pregnancy is primarily determined by the **distensibility and diameter** of the specific anatomical site where the embryo implants. **1. Why 8 weeks is correct:** The **ampulla** is the most common site of ectopic pregnancy (70-80%). It is the widest and most distensible part of the Fallopian tube. Because of this relative roominess, the tube can accommodate the growing gestational sac longer than the narrow isthmus. Rupture typically occurs when the stretching limit is reached, which is generally around **8 weeks** of gestation. **2. Analysis of incorrect options:** * **6 weeks (Option A):** This is the typical timing for rupture of an **isthmic pregnancy**. The isthmus is the narrowest part of the tube with minimal distensibility, leading to early rupture. * **12 weeks (Option C):** This is the characteristic timing for an **interstitial (cornual) pregnancy**. Since the interstitial part is surrounded by thick, vascular myometrium, it can expand significantly more than the extra-uterine tube before rupturing. * **16 weeks (Option D):** While some interstitial pregnancies can last until 16 weeks, this is too late for an ampullary pregnancy, which lacks the muscular support to reach the second trimester. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common site of Ectopic:** Ampulla (70-80%). * **Most common site of Rupture:** Isthmus (due to narrow lumen). * **Most dangerous site:** Interstitial (due to risk of massive hemorrhage from the uterine artery branch). * **Classic Triad:** Amenorrhea, abdominal pain, and vaginal bleeding (present in only 50% of cases). * **Key Sign:** Adnexal tenderness and cervical motion tenderness (Chandelier sign).

Question 1

What is the most common symptom present in an undisturbed ectopic pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Pain in the lower abdomen

Answer

Amenorrhea

Answer

Bleeding per vaginum

Answer

Fainting attack

Question 2

Danazol used in the treatment of endometriosis causes which of the following changes within the endometrium and endometriosis tissue?

Accepted Answer

Atrophy

Answer

Aplasia

Answer

Hyperplasia

Answer

Neoplasia

Question 3

What is the cause of acidic pH of the vagina?

Accepted Answer

Doderlein Bacilli

Answer

Gardnerella

Answer

Mobilincus

Answer

Glycogen

Question 4

Endometrial hyperplasia is typically associated with which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Polycystic ovarian disease

Answer

Endodermal sinus tumor

Answer

Dysgerminoma

Answer

Carcinoma of the cervix

Question 5

Which of the following is NOT true about fibroids?

Accepted Answer

They have a least vascular periphery.

Answer

They are pseudo-encapsulated.

Answer

They are typically slow-growing.

Answer

Calcifications begin from the periphery.

Question 6

Which of the following is NOT a concern when using mifepristone for the treatment of uterine fibroid?

Accepted Answer

Hirsutism

Answer

Endometrial hyperplasia

Answer

Vasomotor symptoms

Answer

Early pregnancy termination

Question 7

In the following laparoscopic view of the uterus and pelvis, what is the likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Genital tuberculosis

Answer

Pyogenic infection

Answer

Fungal infection

Answer

Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome

Question 8

A 34-year-old woman has been trying to conceive for 3 years. On pelvic examination, there is a nodular, tender uterosacral ligament, a retroverted but normal-sized uterus, and a right adnexal mass. A recent pelvic ultrasound reveals a 6-cm right complex ovarian mass. Her CA-125 is elevated. What is the initial next step in management?

Accepted Answer

Laparoscopy with cystectomy

Answer

GnRH agonist

Answer

Diagnostic Hysterosalpingography

Answer

Laparoscopy and right oophorectomy

Question 9

Ampullary pregnancy ruptures generally at how many weeks?

Accepted Answer

8 weeks

Answer

6 weeks

Answer

12 weeks

Answer

16 weeks

Question 10

A woman presents with a fluctuant non-tender swelling at the introitus. What is the best treatment?

Accepted Answer

Marsupilization

Answer

Incision and drainage

Answer

Surgical resection

Answer

Aspiration

Gynecological Disorders — MCQs

Gynecological Disorders — MCQs

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