Gynecological Disorders — MCQs

A 19-year-old student presents to the university health service with lower abdominal pain and a painful swollen right knee, denying any trauma to the knee. Pelvic examination is exquisitely painful and reveals an ill-defined thickening in the right and left adnexae, with a vaginal discharge noted. The patient is febrile (38.7°C/103°F). Examination of her right knee reveals an enlarged, tender, and warm joint. The WBC count is 18,500/mL (normal = 4,000 to 11,000/mL). If left untreated, which of the following would be the most likely complication in this patient?

Gynecological Disorders Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1191: What does a positive whiff test indicate?

A. Chlamydial infection
B. HSV infection
C. Candidiasis
D. Bacterial vaginosis (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Bacterial vaginosis*** - A **positive whiff test** (amine odor upon adding potassium hydroxide to vaginal discharge) is a hallmark clinical characteristic of **bacterial vaginosis**. - This **fishy odor** is produced by amines generated by anaerobic bacteria overgrowing in the vagina. *Candidiasis* - **Candidiasis**, or yeast infection, typically presents with a **thick, white, 'cottage cheese-like' discharge** and intense itching, without a characteristic foul odor. - A whiff test is generally **negative** in cases of Candida infection. *Chlamydial infection* - **Chlamydia** often causes cervicitis or urethritis, and can be **asymptomatic** or present with mild discharge, pelvic pain, or dysuria. - It is a bacterial infection but does **not produce the characteristic amines** responsible for a positive whiff test. *HSV infection* - **Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) infection** causes painful genital lesions, ulcers, and blisters. - While there may be associated discharge, it is typically **seropurulent** and **does not produce a fishy odor** or a positive whiff test.

Question 1192: A woman presents with a thick, curdy, white vaginal discharge. The best treatment for her is:

A. Miconazole (Correct Answer)
B. Metronidazole
C. Nystatin
D. Doxycycline

Explanation: ***Miconazole*** - **Miconazole** is an **azole antifungal medication** that is highly effective against *Candida* species, which commonly cause **vulvovaginal candidiasis** (yeast infections). - The classic presentation of **thick, curdy, white vaginal discharge** is highly suggestive of candidiasis. - **Topical azole antifungals** like miconazole are **first-line therapy** and offer the advantage of **shorter treatment courses** (1-7 days) with excellent efficacy. - This makes it the **best treatment option** among the choices given. *Nystatin* - **Nystatin** is also an **antifungal agent** that is effective against *Candida* species and can be used to treat vulvovaginal candidiasis. - However, azole antifungals like miconazole are generally **preferred** because they require **shorter treatment duration** (1-7 days vs. 14 days for nystatin) and have comparable or superior efficacy. - While nystatin is a reasonable alternative, **miconazole is the better choice** for most patients due to improved compliance with shorter regimens. *Metronidazole* - **Metronidazole** is an **antibiotic** and **antiprotozoal** medication primarily used to treat **bacterial vaginosis** and **trichomoniasis**. - These conditions typically present with a **thin, gray, watery discharge** and a **fishy odor**, which are not described here. - It is **not effective** against fungal infections like candidiasis. *Doxycycline* - **Doxycycline** is a **tetracycline antibiotic** used to treat bacterial infections, including **chlamydia** and **pelvic inflammatory disease**. - It is **not effective** against fungal infections like vulvovaginal candidiasis, and its use would be inappropriate given the described symptoms.

Question 1193: All of the following ovarian tumors usually occur bilaterally, except:

A. Metastatic mass
B. Dysgerminoma
C. Dermoid cyst (Correct Answer)
D. Adenoma of ovary

Explanation: ***Dermoid cyst*** - Dermoid cysts (mature cystic teratomas) are typically **unilateral** in about 85-90% of cases, with only 10-15% being bilateral. - They arise from **totipotential germ cells** and are benign tumors containing mature tissues like hair, teeth, or bone. - This is the **most common ovarian tumor** with predominantly unilateral presentation. *Metastatic mass* - Ovarian metastases, particularly from **gastrointestinal primaries (Krukenberg tumors)** and breast cancer, frequently involve both ovaries in **70-80% of cases**. - The bilateral presentation is due to **transcoelomic spread** or lymphatic/hematogenous dissemination. *Dysgerminoma* - While individual dysgerminomas may present unilaterally at diagnosis, they have a **significant propensity for bilateral involvement** when considering: - **Microscopic involvement** of the contralateral ovary (occult disease) - **Synchronous** bilateral disease in 10-15% of cases - Association with **gonadal dysgenesis** where bilateral gonadoblastomas may give rise to dysgerminomas - Among malignant germ cell tumors, dysgerminoma has the **highest rate of bilaterality**. *Adenoma of ovary* - Epithelial ovarian tumors, particularly **serous cystadenomas**, present bilaterally in approximately **20% of cases**. - **Mucinous cystadenomas** are less frequently bilateral (5%), but serous tumors show notable bilateral tendency. - The term "adenoma" here likely refers to benign epithelial neoplasms with bilateral potential.

Question 1194: What is the treatment of choice for a Bartholin's abscess?

A. Incision drainage
B. Cystectomy
C. Vulvectomy
D. Marsupialization (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Marsupialization*** - This is the **definitive treatment of choice** for Bartholin's abscess, providing a permanent solution. - The procedure involves incising the cyst or abscess and then suturing the edges of the **cyst wall to the labial skin**. - Its purpose is to create a permanent opening for drainage, **preventing recurrence** by allowing the gland to resume its normal function of secreting fluid. - Provides superior long-term outcomes compared to simple incision and drainage. *Incision drainage* - Simple incision and drainage may provide temporary relief for a Bartholin's abscess but carries a **high risk of recurrence** (up to 30-40%) because the opening typically closes quickly. - It does not address the underlying problem of the blocked duct, which leads to fluid accumulation. - May be used as an initial emergency measure, but marsupialization remains the definitive treatment. *Cystectomy* - **Excision of the entire Bartholin's gland** (cystectomy) is reserved for recurrent cysts or abscesses that fail other treatments, or in cases where malignancy is suspected. - It is a more invasive procedure with higher risk of complications (bleeding, scarring) and not the first-line treatment for an acute abscess. *Vulvectomy* - **Vulvectomy** is the surgical removal of part or all of the vulva, typically performed for **vulvar cancer**. - This procedure is far too extensive and inappropriate for the treatment of a Bartholin's abscess.

Question 1195: In which condition are clue cells typically observed?

A. Bacterial vaginosis (BV) (Correct Answer)
B. Candidiasis
C. Chlamydia infection
D. Trichomoniasis

Explanation: ***Bacterial vaginosis (BV)*** - **Clue cells** are a hallmark microscopic finding in **bacterial vaginosis**, characterized by vaginal epithelial cells heavily coated with coccobacillary bacteria. - The presence of clue cells is one of the **Amsel criteria** used for the clinical diagnosis of BV, alongside a positive whiff test, vaginal pH >4.5, and homogeneous gray discharge. *Candidiasis* - **Candidiasis** (yeast infection) typically presents with **pseudohyphae** and budding yeast cells on microscopic examination of vaginal discharge. - **Clue cells** are not a feature of candidiasis; finding them would suggest a concurrent or alternative diagnosis. *Chlamydia infection* - **Chlamydia infection** is a sexually transmitted infection that primarily causes **cervicitis** or urethritis and is diagnosed via **nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs)**. - Clue cells are not observed in chlamydia infections, as they are not associated with bacterial overgrowth on vaginal epithelial cells. *Trichomoniasis* - **Trichomoniasis**, caused by the parasite *Trichomonas vaginalis*, is characterized by the presence of **motile flagellated trophozoites** on wet mount microscopy. - While it can cause vaginitis, **clue cells** are not a diagnostic feature of trichomoniasis and indicate bacterial vaginosis instead.

Question 1196: Which of the following is NOT a recognized mechanism causing pain in patients with endometriosis?

A. Local peritoneal inflammation
B. Deep infiltration with tissue damage
C. Collection of shed menstrual blood in endometriotic implants
D. Septic seeding of the endometriotic implants (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Septic seeding of the endometriotic implants*** - Endometriosis is a **sterile inflammatory condition**; therefore, **septic (bacterial) seeding** of implants is not a recognized mechanism of pain. - While infection can occur as a secondary complication in any tissue, it is not a primary mechanism *causing* the pain characteristic of endometriosis. *Local peritoneal inflammation* - **Endometrial implants** release **pro-inflammatory substances** like prostaglandins, cytokines, and chemokines, leading to chronic inflammation of the peritoneum. - This inflammation irritates **nerve endings** in the peritoneum, contributing significantly to pain perception. *Deep infiltration with tissue damage* - **Deeply infiltrating endometriosis** can invade surrounding organs like the bowel, bladder, or uterosacral ligaments, causing **tissue damage** and distortion. - This invasion directly irritates and compresses **local nerves**, leading to severe and chronic pain. *Collection of shed menstrual blood in endometriotic implants* - **Ectopic endometrial tissue** within implants undergoes cyclical bleeding, similar to the uterine endometrium, in response to hormonal changes. - The **collection of shed blood** and subsequent breakdown products within these implants irritates surrounding tissues and nerve fibers, causing pain.

Question 1197: All of the following are protective factors against endometriosis, except:

A. Exercise
B. Oral contraceptive use
C. Nulliparity (Correct Answer)
D. Pregnancy

Explanation: ***Nulliparity*** - **Nulliparity** is a **risk factor** for endometriosis, not a protective one, as the absence of pregnancy means more menstrual cycles during a woman's reproductive life. - Each menstrual cycle presents an opportunity for **retrograde menstruation**, a key theory in the origin of endometriosis. - Women who have never been pregnant have more lifetime menstrual cycles, increasing cumulative exposure to **estrogen** and opportunities for endometrial implantation. *Pregnancy* - **Pregnancy** is considered protective because the prolonged **amenorrhea** and high **progesterone** levels during gestation suppress endometrial growth and shedding. - This hormonal environment can cause existing endometriosis lesions to **regress** or become quiescent. - Multiple pregnancies provide cumulative protective effects through reduced lifetime menstrual cycles. *Exercise* - Regular **physical activity** is thought to reduce endometriosis risk, possibly by lowering **estrogen levels** and supporting a healthy immune system. - Exercise can also help maintain a healthy weight, which is indirectly linked to **hormonal balance**. - Studies suggest women who exercise regularly have reduced risk of developing endometriosis. *Oral contraceptive use* - **Combined oral contraceptives** provide significant protection against endometriosis by suppressing ovulation and reducing menstrual flow. - The **progestin component** causes decidualization and atrophy of endometrial tissue, including ectopic implants. - Long-term OCP use is associated with decreased risk of developing endometriosis and is also used therapeutically for symptom management.

Question 1198: An obese woman of 49 years of age, with a history of diabetes and hypertension, complains of heavy menstrual bleeding with delayed and irregular cycles. Which of the following is the most important cause that should be ruled out in this patient?

A. Cancer cervix
B. Endometrial cancer (Correct Answer)
C. Fibroid uterus
D. Polycystic ovaries

Explanation: ***Endometrial cancer*** - This patient has multiple risk factors for **endometrial cancer**, including **obesity**, **diabetes**, **hypertension**, and being in the **perimenopausal** age group (49 years old). - Her symptoms of heavy menstrual bleeding with delayed and irregular cycles are classic presentations of **endometrial hyperplasia** or **endometrial cancer**, warranting prompt investigation. *Cancer cervix* - While cervical cancer is a concern, its typical presentation often involves **post-coital bleeding** or **intermenstrual bleeding**, rather than heavy and irregular cycles, making other causes more likely in this specific scenario. - Risk factors for cervical cancer include **HPV infection**, early age of first intercourse, multiple sexual partners, and smoking, which are not mentioned here. *Fibroid uterus* - **Fibroids** can cause heavy menstrual bleeding, but the delayed and irregular cycles, combined with the patient's strong metabolic risk factors, make endometrial pathology a more urgent concern. - Fibroids are **benign tumors** and do not carry the same immediate malignancy risk as the presenting symptoms suggest for this patient profile. *Polycystic ovaries* - **PCOS** often presents with irregular or absent menstruation and infertility, usually in younger women, and is associated with obesity and insulin resistance. - While PCOS can lead to chronic anovulation and increased risk of **endometrial hyperplasia**, a 49-year-old with acute changes in bleeding pattern and metabolic syndrome points more directly to the need to rule out established endometrial malignancy.

Question 1199: Under what circumstances is surgical treatment indicated for asymptomatic uterine myoma?

A. Diagnosis is uncertain. (Correct Answer)
B. The myoma is pedunculated.
C. The tumor is larger than the size of a 3-month pregnancy.
D. The myoma is subserosal in location.

Explanation: ***Diagnosis is uncertain*** - Surgical intervention is indicated for asymptomatic uterine myomas when there's **diagnostic uncertainty**, especially concerning malignancy. This includes rapid growth or suspicious imaging findings that raise red flags for **sarcoma**. - If imaging or clinical evaluation cannot definitively rule out a **leiomyosarcoma** or other malignancy, surgical removal (e.g., **myomectomy** or **hysterectomy**) is often recommended to obtain a definitive diagnosis and prevent potential progression of cancer. *The myoma is pedunculated* - A **pedunculated myoma** itself is not an automatic indication for surgery if it is asymptomatic. These can be observed unless they cause symptoms like torsion, pain, or pressure. - While pedunculated myomas are more prone to **torsion** and subsequent acute pain, asymptomatic ones can be safely managed with watchful waiting. *The tumor is larger than the size of a 3-month pregnancy* - The size of a uterine myoma, even if it exceeds the equivalent of a **12-week (3-month) pregnancy**, is not an automatic surgical indication if the patient remains **asymptomatic**. - While large fibroids can cause symptoms due to bulk compression, asymptomatic ones can often be managed conservatively, especially if they are not rapidly growing or causing other concerns. *The myoma is subserosal in location* - **Subserosal myomas** (growing outward from the uterine wall) are typically the least symptomatic type and rarely require surgery unless they cause specific complications. - Location alone is not an indication for surgery in asymptomatic patients. Subserosal fibroids can be safely observed with periodic monitoring.

Question 1200: A 19-year-old student presents to the university health service with lower abdominal pain and a painful swollen right knee, denying any trauma to the knee. Pelvic examination is exquisitely painful and reveals an ill-defined thickening in the right and left adnexae, with a vaginal discharge noted. The patient is febrile (38.7°C/103°F). Examination of her right knee reveals an enlarged, tender, and warm joint. The WBC count is 18,500/mL (normal = 4,000 to 11,000/mL). If left untreated, which of the following would be the most likely complication in this patient?

A. Tubo-ovarian abscess (Correct Answer)
B. Bronchopneumonia
C. Lung abscess
D. Meningitis

Explanation: ***Tubo-ovarian abscess*** - The patient's symptoms of **fever**, **lower abdominal pain**, **vaginal discharge**, and **bilateral adnexal tenderness with thickening** are highly suggestive of **Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)**. - The **painful swollen knee without trauma** suggests **reactive arthritis** or **Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome**, both associated with PID (commonly due to *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* or *Chlamydia trachomatis*). - If left untreated, PID can progress to a **tubo-ovarian abscess**, the most serious acute complication involving purulent infection of the fallopian tubes and ovaries, which may require surgical intervention. *Bronchopneumonia* - This is an **acute inflammation of the bronchioles and alveoli**, typically caused by bacterial or viral infections. - There are no respiratory symptoms presented in the patient, such as cough, dyspnea, or abnormal lung sounds. - This is not a recognized complication of PID. *Lung abscess* - This is a **necrotic infection of the lung parenchyma**, typically a complication of bacterial pneumonia or aspiration. - The patient lacks respiratory symptoms, and the clinical picture strongly points towards a pelvic and joint infection rather than a lung pathology. - This is not a complication of untreated PID. *Meningitis* - Meningitis is an **inflammation of the meninges surrounding the brain and spinal cord**, characterized by headache, stiff neck, and fever. - While *N. gonorrhoeae* can rarely cause disseminated infection with meningitis, this is extremely uncommon, and there are no neurological signs or meningeal irritation present in this patient. - The most likely complication remains tubo-ovarian abscess.

Practice by Chapter

Abnormal Uterine Bleeding

Practice Questions

Endometriosis

Practice Questions

Adenomyosis

Practice Questions

Uterine Fibroids

Practice Questions

Ovarian Cysts

Practice Questions

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

Practice Questions

Vulvovaginitis

Practice Questions

Pelvic Organ Prolapse

Practice Questions

Vulvar Disorders

Practice Questions

Benign Breast Diseases

Practice Questions

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