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Which one of the following statements truly represents Bell's paralysis?
True about lower motor neuron palsy of VIIth nerve:
L'Hermitte's sign is a characteristic feature of
A 60-year-old man has resting tremor, pill-rolling movements, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Which of the following is most likely to be decreased in this man?
A 79-year-old woman is brought to the clinic for assessment of frequent falls. There is no loss of consciousness associated with the falls, and she reports no postural change or symptoms prior to the falls. She also describes difficulty in "getting going" when she starts walking and notices that her balance is "not right." Her gait is slow and shuffling on inspection. Which of the following is the most likely finding in a patient with Parkinson disease?
A 24-year-old female with long standing history of sinusitis present with fevers, headache (recent origin) and personality changes; Fundus examination revealed papilledema. Most likely diagnosis is:
A 35-year-old man presents with daily headache. He describes two attacks per day over the last 3 weeks. Each attack lasts about an hour and awakens him from sleep. The patient has noticed associated tearing and reddening of the right eye as well as nasal stuffiness. The pain's deep, excruciating, and limiting to the right side of the head. The neurological examination is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Inability to abduct left eye with LMN fascial palsy on same side. The lesion is in
A 32-year-old woman presents to you for evaluation of headache. The headaches began at age 18, were initially unilateral and worse around the time of her menses. Initially the use of triptans two or three times a month would provide complete relief. Over the past several years, however, the headaches have become more frequent and severe. Triptans provide only partial relief; the patient requires a combination of acetaminophen, caffeine, and butalbital to achieve some improvement. Prophylactic medications including beta-blockers, tricyclics, and topiramate have been unsuccessful in preventing the headaches, and she has been to the emergency room three times over the past 2 weeks for a "pain shot." The general physical examination is unremarkable. Her funduscopic examination shows no evidence of papilledema, and a careful neurological examination is likewise normal. What is the most likely explanation for her headache syndrome?
Two or more oligoclonal bands in cerebrospinal fluid are most often positive in-
Cerebrovascular Diseases
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Seizure Disorders and Epilepsy
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Headache Disorders
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Movement Disorders
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Demyelinating Diseases
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Neurodegenerative Disorders
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Neuromuscular Junction Disorders
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Peripheral Neuropathies
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CNS Infections
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Neuro-oncology
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Dementia and Cognitive Disorders
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Neurological Emergencies
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