Hematology Practice Questions

Q: A 45-year-old male presents with fatigue, arthralgia, and darkening of the skin. Laboratory tests show elevated serum iron and transferrin saturation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hemochromatosis. ***Hemochromatosis*** - **Hemochromatosis** is characterized by excessive iron absorption and deposition, leading to symptoms like **fatigue**, **arthralgia**, and **bronze skin pigmentation** (darkening of the skin) [1]. - Elevated **serum iron** and **transferrin saturation** are key laboratory findings that confirm the diagnosis [2]. *Wilson's disease* - **Wilson's disease** involves excessive copper accumulation, primarily affecting the liver, brain, and eyes (**Kayser-Fleischer rings**). - Symptoms include neurological and psychiatric disturbances, and liver disease, with laboratory findings showing decreased **serum ceruloplasmin** and increased urinary copper, not elevated iron. *Addison's disease* - **Addison's disease** is caused by adrenal insufficiency, leading to symptoms such as fatigue, weight loss, and **hyperpigmentation** (darkening of the skin) due to increased ACTH. - However, it is characterized by electrolyte imbalances (hyponatremia, hyperkalemia) and low cortisol levels, not elevated iron. *Cushing's syndrome* - **Cushing's syndrome** results from prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol, presenting with symptoms like truncal obesity, moon facies, and purple striae. - While it can cause fatigue, skin changes typically involve easy bruising and thin skin, not generalized darkening, and iron metabolism is not primarily affected.

Q: A 35-year-old female presents with fatigue, palpitations, and pallor. Laboratory tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL, low serum iron, and high TIBC. Which additional test would best guide the next step in management?

Serum ferritin level. ***Serum ferritin level*** - The **serum ferritin level** directly reflects the body's **iron stores**, essential for confirming iron deficiency anemia in this patient [2]. - Low ferritin would confirm iron deficiency, guiding management towards **iron supplementation** [1]. *Reticulocyte count* - A **reticulocyte count** measures the bone marrow's response to anemia; however, it does not determine the underlying cause. - In iron deficiency anemia, the reticulocyte count may be **low** due to inadequate iron for erythropoiesis. *Serum vitamin B12 level* - A **serum vitamin B12 level** is relevant for diagnosing macrocytic anemias, not microcytic anemia featured here due to low **serum iron** [3]. - This test would not clarify the cause of the anemia since the lab results suggest iron deficiency [4]. *Bone marrow biopsy* - A **bone marrow biopsy** is an invasive procedure typically reserved for cases of unexplained anemia or suspected malignancy. - It is not necessary here since the clinical picture and lab findings strongly indicate iron deficiency anemia [4].

Q: A 45-year-old woman presents with severe fatigue, pallor, and a sore tongue. Her hemoglobin level is 8 g/dL, and her mean corpuscular volume is 105 fL. What is the most likely cause of her anemia?

Vitamin B12 deficiency. ***Vitamin B12 deficiency*** - The combination of severe fatigue, pallor, **sore tongue** (glossitis), **macrocytic anemia** (MCV > 100 fL), and low hemoglobin strongly suggests **vitamin B12 deficiency** [1]. - **Pernicious anemia**, an autoimmune condition affecting intrinsic factor, is a common cause of B12 deficiency in this age group, leading to impaired B12 absorption [1]. *Iron deficiency* - This typically presents with **microcytic anemia** (low MCV), not macrocytic anemia as seen in this patient (MCV 105 fL) [2]. - While fatigue and pallor are common, iron deficiency does not typically cause a **sore tongue** as a prominent symptom. *Sickle cell disease* - This is a **hereditary hemolytic anemia** characterized by sickled red blood cells and recurrent pain crises, usually diagnosed in childhood [2]. - It would present with specific features like **hemolysis** and often **normocytic anemia**, not the macrocytic anemia seen in this case [2]. *Thalassemia* - Thalassemia is a **genetic disorder** causing abnormal hemoglobin production, leading to **microcytic hypochromic anemia**. - Its presentation is typically characterized by a **low MCV** and is often diagnosed earlier in life, unlike the macrocytic anemia in this scenario.

Q: In a 32-year-old female with chronic fatigue, a blood test shows low hemoglobin and elevated mean corpuscular volume (MCV). What is the most appropriate dietary recommendation?

Increase intake of vitamin B12 rich foods. ***Increase intake of vitamin B12 rich foods*** - Elevated **mean corpuscular volume (MCV)** with low **hemoglobin** suggests **macrocytic anemia**, most commonly due to **vitamin B12** or **folate deficiency** [1]. - **Vitamin B12** is crucial for **DNA synthesis** in red blood cell production, and deficiency leads to the production of larger, immature red blood cells [1]. *Increase intake of green leafy vegetables* - **Green leafy vegetables** are rich in **folate**, another common cause of **macrocytic anemia** [1]. - While beneficial, **vitamin B12 deficiency** can also cause neurological symptoms, so addressing it is critical. *Increase intake of protein-rich foods* - **Protein** is necessary for overall health and **hemoglobin synthesis**, but directly addressing the specific cause of macrocytic anemia (vitamin B12 deficiency) is more appropriate. - While important for general nutrition, **protein deficiency** does not typically manifest with isolated macrocytic anemia. *Increase intake of iron supplements* - **Iron deficiency** typically causes **microcytic anemia** (low MCV), not **macrocytic anemia** (elevated MCV) [1]. - Administering **iron supplements** in the presence of macrocytic anemia for which it is not indicated can delay proper diagnosis and treatment [1].

Q: A 55-year-old man presents with weakness and lymphadenopathy. A peripheral blood smear shows lymphocytosis with smudge cells. What is the best treatment option for symptomatic chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)?

BTK inhibitor therapy (e.g., ibrutinib). ***Chemotherapy with rituximab*** - Rituximab is an effective therapy for **chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)** [1], especially indicated in symptomatic patients with lymphocytosis and **smudge cells**. - It targets **CD20** on B-cells [1], leading to tumor cell apoptosis and depletion, improving symptoms like weakness and lymphadenopathy. *Observation with routine blood work* - This approach may be used for **asymptomatic CLL** [1] but does not address the current symptoms of weakness and lymphadenopathy. - It is inappropriate for symptomatic cases, where treatment is warranted to prevent disease progression. *Surgery followed by radiation therapy* - Surgery is generally not indicated in **CLL**, as it is typically not a solid tumor amenable to surgical resection. - Radiation therapy is also not the primary treatment; it is more relevant in localized lymphomas rather than CLL [1]. *Bone marrow transplant* - Generally considered for **refractory cases** or high-risk leukemias, it is not the first-line treatment for CLL [1]. - This approach carries significant risks and is reserved for cases not responsive to standard therapies like **rituximab**.

Q: Which of the following is the first-line treatment for a patient diagnosed with Hodgkin's lymphoma?

Chemotherapy with ABVD regimen. **Chemotherapy with ABVD regimen** - The **ABVD regimen (Adriamycin, Bleomycin, Vinblastine, Dacarbazine)** is a standard first-line chemotherapy protocol for both early and advanced stages of **Hodgkin's lymphoma**. - It is highly effective in inducing remission and has a well-established safety profile, making it the preferred initial treatment approach. *Surgical resection* - **Surgical resection** is generally not a primary treatment for Hodgkin's lymphoma, as it is a systemic disease. [1] - It may be used for **diagnostic biopsy** or to address complications, but not as definitive first-line therapy. [1] *Radiation therapy alone* - While **radiation therapy** is crucial in Hodgkin's lymphoma management, it is typically used in conjunction with chemotherapy, especially for localized disease. - **Radiation therapy alone** is usually reserved for very early-stage disease with favorable prognostic features in specific clinical settings. [1] *Immunotherapy with checkpoint inhibitors* - **Immunotherapy with checkpoint inhibitors** (e.g., nivolumab, pembrolizumab) is primarily reserved for **relapsed or refractory Hodgkin's lymphoma** after failure of initial chemotherapy. - It is not considered a first-line treatment option, especially given the high efficacy of ABVD in newly diagnosed cases.

Q: A 55-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pallor, and jaundice. Laboratory tests show hemoglobin of 8.5 g/dL, a reticulocyte count of 6%, and an indirect bilirubin level of 3.5 mg/dL. Which test is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

Direct Coombs test. ***Direct Coombs test*** - The patient's symptoms (fatigue, pallor, jaundice) combined with laboratory findings (**anemia**, **reticulocytosis**, **indirect hyperbilirubinemia**) are highly suggestive of **hemolytic anemia** [1],[2]. - A **Direct Coombs test** (Direct Antiglobulin Test or DAT) is used to detect antibodies or complement components bound to the surface of red blood cells, which is the hallmark of **autoimmune hemolytic anemia** [1]. *Serum ferritin* - **Serum ferritin** measures iron stores and would be relevant for diagnosing **iron deficiency anemia**. - However, the presence of **jaundice** and **reticulocytosis** points away from iron deficiency and towards a hemolytic process. *Hemoglobin electrophoresis* - **Hemoglobin electrophoresis** is used to identify abnormal hemoglobin variants and diagnose conditions like **sickle cell anemia** or **thalassemia**. - While these can cause hemolytic anemia, the acute presentation with clear signs of red blood cell destruction (jaundice, reticulocytosis) in an adult often warrants investigation for an acquired cause like **autoimmune hemolytic anemia** first [1]. *Bone marrow biopsy* - A **bone marrow biopsy** is invasive and typically reserved for investigating disorders of hematopoiesis, such as bone marrow failure syndromes or hematologic malignancies. - While it can assess red blood cell production, it is not the primary diagnostic test for identifying the cause of active **hemolysis**.

Q: A 25-year-old woman presents with episodic hemolysis and hemoglobinuria, particularly at night. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria - This condition is characterized by episodic hemolysis and hemoglobinuria, often worse at night due to increased blood acidity during sleep. - It is caused by a deficiency in GPI-anchored proteins (like CD55 and CD59) on red blood cells, making them susceptible to complement-mediated lysis. G6PD deficiency - While it causes hemolysis, it is typically triggered by oxidative stress from certain foods (e.g., fava beans) or drugs, not specifically worse at night [1]. - Laboratory findings would show Heinz bodies and bite cells following an oxidative challenge, which are not characteristic of the nocturnal pattern described [3]. Hereditary spherocytosis - This is a chronic hemolytic anemia characterized by spherocytes on a peripheral smear and increased osmotic fragility of red blood cells [2]. - Hemolysis is generally continuous, not episodic or specifically nocturnal, and is due to structural defects in the red cell membrane [4]. Sickle cell disease - This condition involves sickle-shaped red blood cells under hypoxic conditions, leading to vaso-occlusive crises and chronic hemolysis. - While it causes episodic symptoms, these are typically painful crises and organ damage, not primarily characterized by nocturnal hemoglobinuria.

Question 1

A 45-year-old male presents with fatigue, arthralgia, and darkening of the skin. Laboratory tests show elevated serum iron and transferrin saturation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Hemochromatosis

Answer

Wilson's disease

Answer

Addison's disease

Answer

Cushing's syndrome

Question 2

A 72-year-old female with a history of atrial fibrillation on warfarin presents with acute flank pain. A CT scan reveals a large perinephric hematoma. What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

Accepted Answer

Reversal of anticoagulation to prevent further bleeding in the context of a perinephric hematoma.

Answer

Continue anticoagulation despite the hematoma.

Answer

Observation with close monitoring without intervention.

Answer

Surgical evacuation of the hematoma as a first-line treatment.

Question 3

A 35-year-old female presents with fatigue, palpitations, and pallor. Laboratory tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL, low serum iron, and high TIBC. Which additional test would best guide the next step in management?

Accepted Answer

Serum ferritin level

Answer

Reticulocyte count

Answer

Bone marrow biopsy

Answer

Serum vitamin B12 level

Question 4

A 45-year-old woman presents with severe fatigue, pallor, and a sore tongue. Her hemoglobin level is 8 g/dL, and her mean corpuscular volume is 105 fL. What is the most likely cause of her anemia?

Accepted Answer

Vitamin B12 deficiency

Answer

Iron deficiency

Answer

Sickle cell disease

Answer

Thalassemia

Question 5

In a 32-year-old female with chronic fatigue, a blood test shows low hemoglobin and elevated mean corpuscular volume (MCV). What is the most appropriate dietary recommendation?

Accepted Answer

Increase intake of vitamin B12 rich foods

Answer

Increase intake of green leafy vegetables

Answer

Increase intake of protein-rich foods

Answer

Increase intake of iron supplements

Question 6

A 60-year-old male presents with fatigue, anemia, and splenomegaly. His peripheral blood smear shows teardrop-shaped red blood cells. Which of the following physiological mechanisms is most likely responsible for his anemia?

Accepted Answer

Decreased red blood cell lifespan due to splenic sequestration

Answer

Increased iron absorption in the gut

Answer

Decreased erythropoietin production in the kidneys

Answer

Increased erythropoiesis response

Question 7

A 55-year-old man presents with weakness and lymphadenopathy. A peripheral blood smear shows lymphocytosis with smudge cells. What is the best treatment option for symptomatic chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)?

Accepted Answer

BTK inhibitor therapy (e.g., ibrutinib)

Answer

Bone marrow transplant

Answer

Surgery followed by radiation therapy

Answer

Observation with routine blood work

Question 8

Which of the following is the first-line treatment for a patient diagnosed with Hodgkin's lymphoma?

Accepted Answer

Chemotherapy with ABVD regimen

Answer

Surgical resection

Answer

Radiation therapy alone

Answer

Immunotherapy with checkpoint inhibitors

Question 9

A 55-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pallor, and jaundice. Laboratory tests show hemoglobin of 8.5 g/dL, a reticulocyte count of 6%, and an indirect bilirubin level of 3.5 mg/dL. Which test is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Direct Coombs test

Answer

Serum ferritin

Answer

Hemoglobin electrophoresis

Answer

Bone marrow biopsy

Question 10

A 25-year-old woman presents with episodic hemolysis and hemoglobinuria, particularly at night. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

Answer

G6PD deficiency

Answer

Hereditary spherocytosis

Answer

Sickle cell disease

Hematology — MCQs

Hematology — MCQs

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