Hematology Practice Questions

Q: Which drug is used in mild hemophilia?

DDAVP. **Explanation:** **Correct Option: B. DDAVP (Desmopressin)** DDAVP is a synthetic analogue of vasopressin. In patients with **mild Hemophilia A** (Factor VIII levels >5%), it acts by stimulating the release of endogenous **Factor VIII and von Willebrand Factor (vWF)** from the Weibel-Palade bodies of endothelial cells [1]. This transient rise in Factor VIII (usually 3–5 fold) is often sufficient to manage minor bleeds or provide prophylaxis for minor surgical procedures without the need for plasma-derived concentrates [1]. **Incorrect Options:** * **A. Corticosteroids:** These are used to manage inflammatory complications like hemophilic arthropathy or in cases of acquired hemophilia with inhibitors, but they do not increase clotting factor levels. * **C. Vitamin K:** This is essential for the synthesis of Factors II, VII, IX, and X. Hemophilia A and B are congenital deficiencies of Factors VIII and IX respectively, which are not affected by Vitamin K administration. * **D. Tranexamic acid:** This is an antifibrinolytic agent. While it is a useful **adjunct** therapy (especially for mucosal bleeds), it does not address the underlying factor deficiency and is not the primary treatment of choice. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Route:** DDAVP can be administered IV, SC, or via a concentrated intranasal spray (Stimate). * **Tachyphylaxis:** Repeated doses lead to a diminished response as endothelial stores become exhausted. * **Side Effects:** Hyponatremia (due to its antidiuretic effect) and facial flushing. Patients should be advised on fluid restriction [1]. * **Hemophilia B:** DDAVP is **ineffective** in Hemophilia B (Factor IX deficiency) as Factor IX is not stored in endothelial cells.

Q: In multiple myeloma, which of the following is typically NOT seen?

Anion gap raised. In Multiple Myeloma (MM), the characteristic finding is a **low anion gap**, not a raised one. This occurs because the M-proteins (monoclonal immunoglobulins) are cationic (positively charged) at physiological pH. To maintain electroneutrality, there is an increase in chloride and bicarbonate (unmeasured anions), which mathematically reduces the calculated anion gap [AG = Na - (Cl + HCO3)]. **Explanation of Options:** * **A. Anion gap raised (Correct Answer):** As explained, MM typically presents with a **decreased anion gap**. A raised anion gap is usually seen in conditions like ketoacidosis, lactic acidosis, or renal failure (though MM causes renal failure, the cationic effect of paraproteins often predominates). * **B. Lytic bone lesion:** This is a hallmark of MM [1]. Myeloma cells secrete RANKL and inhibit osteoprotegerin, leading to osteoclast activation and "punched-out" lytic lesions, most commonly in the skull and spine [1]. * **C. Polyarticular pain:** Bone pain is the most common presenting symptom in MM [1]. It often involves the back and ribs and can mimic polyarticular involvement due to multiple pathological fractures or bone destruction. * **D. M spike with polyneuropathy:** An M-spike (monoclonal gammopathy) is the diagnostic signature on protein electrophoresis [1]. Polyneuropathy can occur in MM due to amyloidosis (AL type) or as part of **POEMS syndrome** (Polyneuropathy, Organomegaly, Endocrinopathy, M-protein, and Skin changes). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **CRAB Criteria:** **C**alcium (High), **R**enal insufficiency, **A**nemia, **B**one lesions [1]. * **Diagnosis:** Bone marrow plasma cells **≥10%** or biopsy-proven plasmacytoma [1]. * **Peripheral Smear:** **Rouleaux formation** (due to increased ESR/fibrinogen). * **Urine:** Bence-Jones proteins (detected by sulfosalicylic acid test, not by standard dipstick).

Q: Which of the following is the best candidate for allogeneic bone marrow transplant?

Hereditary immunodeficiency. Explanation: **Hereditary Immunodeficiency (Correct Answer):** Allogeneic Bone Marrow Transplant (BMT) or Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplant (HSCT) is the **definitive curative treatment** for many primary immunodeficiency disorders (e.g., SCID, Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome) [3]. Since the defect lies in the hematopoietic stem cell line, replacing the patient’s defective immune system with healthy donor stem cells restores normal immune function [1]. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Thalassemia Minor:** Patients with thalassemia minor are usually asymptomatic or have mild anemia that does not require treatment. Allogeneic BMT is reserved for **Thalassemia Major**, where the burden of iron overload and transfusion dependency justifies the risks of transplant. * **Autoimmune Disease:** While HSCT is being researched for refractory cases (like Scleroderma or MS), it is not the "best" or standard candidate compared to life-threatening immunodeficiencies. Furthermore, **Autologous** transplant is more commonly used in autoimmune protocols to "reset" the immune system. * **Multiple Myeloma:** The standard of care for eligible myeloma patients is **Autologous BMT** (using the patient's own cells) to allow for high-dose chemotherapy. Allogeneic BMT is rarely used due to high treatment-related mortality and is not the primary choice. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Best Timing for Thalassemia Major BMT:** Ideally performed before the onset of iron overload and hepatomegaly (Lucarelli Class I). * **Graft vs. Host Disease (GVHD):** A major complication of Allogeneic BMT, but the "Graft vs. Leukemia" effect is beneficial in malignancies [2]. * **SCID:** Considered a pediatric emergency; BMT should be performed as early as possible (ideally before 3.5 months of age) for the best prognosis [3].

Q: Which of the following clinical findings favors Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura in pregnancy?

Severe hemolysis. **Explanation:** Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP) is a medical emergency characterized by a deficiency of the ADAMTS13 enzyme, leading to microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (MAHA) and consumptive thrombocytopenia. In the context of pregnancy, differentiating TTP from other conditions like HELLP syndrome or Acute Fatty Liver of Pregnancy (AFLP) is critical. **1. Why "Severe Hemolysis" is correct:** TTP is defined by **intense microangiopathic hemolysis**. Clinical markers include a dramatic rise in LDH (often >1000 U/L), significant schistocytes on peripheral smear, and very low haptoglobin. While HELLP also features hemolysis, the degree of hemolysis in TTP is typically much more profound and occurs independently of significant hepatic dysfunction. **2. Why other options are incorrect:** * **Mild DIC:** TTP is characteristically a **non-consumptive coagulopathy**. PT, aPTT, and Fibrinogen levels are usually **normal** [1]. The presence of DIC strongly favors Abruptio Placentae or AFLP over TTP [1]. * **Marked elevation of transaminases:** This is a hallmark of **HELLP syndrome or AFLP**. In TTP, liver enzymes are usually normal or only mildly elevated due to passive congestion or mild ischemia. * **Moderate thrombocytopenia:** TTP typically presents with **severe thrombocytopenia** (often <20,000/µL). Moderate counts (50,000–100,000/µL) are more common in Gestational Thrombocytopenia or Preeclampsia. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **The Pentad of TTP:** Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (MAHA), Thrombocytopenia, Fever, Renal failure, and Neurological symptoms (FAT RN). * **Key Differentiator:** Normal coagulation profile (PT/aPTT) in a patient with severe hemolysis and schistocytes points directly to TTP/HUS. * **Treatment:** Immediate **Plasmapheresis (Plasma exchange)** is the gold standard. Unlike HELLP, TTP does not resolve with delivery.

Q: What is the treatment of choice for chronic myeloid leukemia?

Imatinib. **Explanation:** **Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)** is characterized by the presence of the **Philadelphia chromosome**, a reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, $t(9;22)$. This results in the formation of the **BCR-ABL fusion gene**, which encodes a constitutively active **Tyrosine Kinase** protein [1], [2]. This protein drives the uncontrolled proliferation of myeloid cells. **Why Imatinib is the Correct Answer:** **Imatinib** is the first-line treatment of choice for CML. It is a selective **Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor (TKI)** that binds to the ATP-binding site of the BCR-ABL protein, effectively "turning off" the signal for cell division [2]. It has revolutionized CML management, shifting it from a fatal disease to a manageable chronic condition [5]. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Hydroxyurea:** Previously used to reduce high white blood cell counts (leukoreduction), it only provides symptomatic relief and does not target the underlying genetic defect or induce cytogenetic remission. * **Interferon-alpha:** Was the standard of care before the advent of TKIs. It is less effective and associated with significant systemic toxicity (flu-like symptoms, depression). * **Cytarabine:** An antimetabolite primarily used in the induction therapy of Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML), not as a primary treatment for chronic phase CML. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Mechanism:** Imatinib is a competitive inhibitor of the ATP-binding site. * **Resistance:** Most common cause of resistance is a point mutation in the BCR-ABL gene (e.g., **T315I mutation**) [4]. * **Next-gen TKIs:** Dasatinib and Nilotinib are used if Imatinib resistance develops [3]. **Ponatinib** is specifically used for the T315I mutation. * **Side Effects:** Fluid retention (periorbital edema) and GI upset are common with Imatinib.

Q: Which is the most common clinical sign of multiple myeloma?

Anemia. In Multiple Myeloma (MM), the most common clinical sign (objective finding) is Anemia, occurring in approximately 73–80% of patients at the time of diagnosis [1]. It is typically a normocytic, normochromic anemia caused primarily by the replacement of normal bone marrow by malignant plasma cells (marrow infiltration) and the inhibitory effects of cytokines (like IL-6) on erythropoiesis. **Analysis of Options:** * **B. Anemia (Correct):** As a clinical sign, it is the most frequent laboratory abnormality [1]. Patients often present with pallor and fatigue. * **A. Bone Pain:** This is the most common symptom (subjective complaint), reported by about 60–70% of patients, usually involving the back or ribs [2]. While highly characteristic, it is statistically less frequent than anemia at presentation. * **C. Hypercalcemia:** While a classic component of the "CRAB" criteria, it is present in only about 25–30% of patients at diagnosis [1]. It results from increased osteoclast activity mediated by RANKL. * **D. Bleeding:** This is relatively uncommon and usually occurs in advanced stages due to thrombocytopenia or interference with clotting factors by monoclonal (M) proteins. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **CRAB Criteria:** Calcium elevation, Renal insufficiency, Anemia, Bone lesions [1]. * **Most common cause of death:** Infection (due to hypogammaglobulinemia), followed by Renal Failure. * **Peripheral Smear:** Characterized by Rouleaux formation (due to high ESR/globulins) [1]. * **Diagnosis:** Bone marrow biopsy showing >10% clonal plasma cells is a major diagnostic criterion [1]. * **Radiology:** "Punched-out" lytic lesions; Skull X-ray is a classic board image [1]. Note: Bone scans are often negative as they detect osteoblastic activity, whereas MM is osteolytic.

Q: A young female has the following lab values: MCV-70, Hb 10 gm%, serum iron 60, serum ferritin 100. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Anemia of chronic infection. ### Explanation The patient presents with **microcytic anemia** (MCV 70, Hb 10) and a biochemical profile characteristic of **Anemia of Chronic Disease (ACD)**, also known as anemia of chronic inflammation/infection [1]. **1. Why Anemia of Chronic Infection is Correct:** In ACD, the primary mediator is **Hepcidin**, an acute-phase reactant. Hepcidin degrades ferroportin, leading to: * **Sequestration of iron** within macrophages (reticuloendothelial system) [2]. * **Normal to High Serum Ferritin:** Since ferritin reflects stored iron, it remains normal or elevated (as seen here: 100 ng/mL) [2]. * **Low to Normal Serum Iron:** Despite adequate stores, iron cannot be released into the plasma for erythropoiesis [1]. The MCV is usually normocytic but can be microcytic in long-standing cases [1]. **2. Why the Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Thalassemia Trait:** While it presents with significant microcytosis (very low MCV), the serum iron and ferritin levels are typically **normal to high** because there is no iron deficiency or sequestration. * **Chronic Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA):** This is the most common cause of microcytic anemia, but it is characterized by **low serum ferritin** (typically 100 fL), usually due to Vitamin B12 or Folate deficiency. It is inconsistent with the MCV of 70. **3. NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Ferritin** is the most sensitive and specific lab test to differentiate IDA (Low) from ACD (Normal/High) [2], [3]. * **Mentzer Index (MCV/RBC count):** 13 suggests IDA. * **Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC):** Increased in IDA; Decreased in ACD [3]. * **Soluble Transferrin Receptor (sTfR):** Elevated in IDA; Normal in ACD (useful when ferritin is borderline) [3].

Question 1

Which drug is used in mild hemophilia?

Accepted Answer

DDAVP

Answer

Corticosteroids

Answer

Vitamin K

Answer

Tranexamic acid

Question 2

A 27-year-old woman presents with epistaxis, rash on her feet, and fevers. She appears unwell, pale, jaundiced, and has multiple petechiae on her feet. Physical examination reveals clear lungs, normal heart sounds, and a soft abdomen with no palpable spleen or liver. Laboratory investigations show: Bilirubin 2 mg/dL (predominantly indirect), normal AST, ALT, and ALP. Hemoglobin is 8.7 g/dL, platelets are 24,000/mL, PT/PTT are normal, and bleeding time is elevated. A peripheral blood smear reveals anemia, thrombocytopenia, and red blood cell fragments. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient presenting with a bleeding disorder?

Accepted Answer

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)

Answer

von Willebrand disease

Answer

Hemophilia A

Answer

Hemophilia B

Question 3

In multiple myeloma, which of the following is typically NOT seen?

Accepted Answer

Anion gap raised

Answer

Lytic bone lesion

Answer

Polyarticular pain

Answer

M spike present with polyneuropathy

Question 4

Which of the following is the best candidate for allogeneic bone marrow transplant?

Accepted Answer

Hereditary immunodeficiency

Answer

6-year-old with thalassemia minor

Answer

Autoimmune disease

Answer

Multiple myeloma

Question 5

Which of the following clinical findings favors Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura in pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Severe hemolysis

Answer

Mild DIC

Answer

Marked elevation of transaminases

Answer

Moderate thrombocytopenia

Question 6

What is the treatment of choice for chronic myeloid leukemia?

Accepted Answer

Imatinib

Answer

Hydroxyurea

Answer

Interferon alpha

Answer

Cytarabine

Question 7

Which is the most common clinical sign of multiple myeloma?

Accepted Answer

Anemia

Answer

Bone pain

Answer

Hypercalcemia

Answer

Bleeding

Question 8

Megaloblastic anemia due to folic acid deficiency is commonly due to what factor?

Accepted Answer

Inadequate dietary intake

Answer

Defective intestinal absorption

Answer

Absence of folic acid binding protein in serum

Answer

Absence of glutamic acid in the intestine

Question 9

A young female has the following lab values: MCV-70, Hb 10 gm%, serum iron 60, serum ferritin 100. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Anemia of chronic infection

Answer

Thalassemia trait

Answer

Chronic iron deficiency anemia

Answer

Megaloblastic anemia

Question 10

Splenomegaly may be a feature of:

Accepted Answer

Sickle cell anemia

Answer

Megaloblastic anemia

Answer

Thalassemia

Answer

G6PD deficiency

Hematology — MCQs

Hematology — MCQs

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