Gastroenterology — MCQs

Gastroenterology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1181: A patient presents with acute abdominal pain that is sharp and radiates to the back. Considering the patient's history of cholecystitis, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute pancreatitis (Correct Answer)
B. Cholecystitis
C. Appendicitis
D. Aortic aneurysm

Explanation: ***Acute pancreatitis*** - The combination of **severe acute abdominal pain** that radiates to the back, especially in a patient with a history of **cholecystitis** (gallstones being a common cause), is highly suggestive of acute pancreatitis [1]. - **Gallstone pancreatitis** occurs when a gallstone obstructs the pancreatic duct, leading to enzyme auto-digestion of the pancreas [2]. *Cholecystitis* - While the patient has a history of cholecystitis, the current symptom of pain radiating to the back is more characteristic of pancreatitis. - **Acute cholecystitis** typically presents with right upper quadrant pain, often radiating to the right shoulder or scapula, sometimes after a fatty meal [3]. *Appendicitis* - **Appendicitis** typically presents with periumbilical pain migrating to the right lower quadrant, and does not commonly radiate to the back. - It is not directly linked to a history of cholecystitis or gallstones as a causative factor. *Aortic aneurysm* - An **abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) rupture** can cause severe, sudden abdominal or back pain, but it is not typically associated with a history of cholecystitis as a predisposing factor for the acute presentation. - AAA pain is often described as tearing or ripping, and carries signs of hemodynamic instability.

Question 1182: Investigation of choice for a 74-year-old male patient with scanty bleeding per rectum and irregular bowel habits.

A. Sigmoidoscopy
B. Barium meal follow through
C. Colonoscopy (Correct Answer)
D. Barium enema

Explanation: ***Colonoscopy*** - **Colonoscopy** is the investigation of choice for **lower gastrointestinal bleeding** and **changes in bowel habits** in older patients due to its ability to visualize the entire colon [1]. - It allows for direct visualization of mucosal abnormalities, **biopsy** acquisition for histological diagnosis, and **polypectomy** for therapeutic intervention [1]. *Sigmoidoscopy* - **Sigmoidoscopy** only visualizes the **rectum** and **distal sigmoid colon**, which could miss lesions higher up responsible for the symptoms [2]. - Given the patient's age and symptoms, more proximal colorectal pathology, such as **colon cancer**, must be excluded [1]. *Barium meal follow through* - A **barium meal follow through** is used to evaluate the **esophagus**, **stomach**, and **small intestine**, not the colon. - It is not suitable for investigating rectal bleeding or irregular bowel habits, which are typically colonic symptoms. *Barium enema* - A **barium enema** is an X-ray study that outlines the colon but is less sensitive than colonoscopy for detecting small lesions, polyps, or early cancers [1]. - It does not allow for **biopsy** or **polypectomy**, which are crucial for definitive diagnosis and treatment [1].

Question 1183: A 14-year-old boy presents with recurrent episodes of hepatitis. Ophthalmoscopic evaluation reveals KF rings and serum ceruloplasmin levels are < 20 mg/dl. What is the treatment of choice for initial therapy?

A. Zinc
B. Tetrathromolybdate
C. Hepatic transplantation
D. Penicillamine (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Penicillamine*** - **Penicillamine** is a **chelating agent** that promotes the excretion of copper from the body, making it the **treatment of choice** for initial therapy in symptomatic Wilson's disease. - The presence of **Kayser-Fleischer (KF) rings** and **low serum ceruloplasmin** in a patient with recurrent hepatitis are classic diagnostic features of **Wilson's disease** [1]. *Zinc* - **Zinc** acts by inducing **metallothionein** in enterocytes, which binds dietary copper and prevents its absorption, promoting fecal excretion. - While used in Wilson's disease, especially for maintenance therapy or in asymptomatic individuals, it is generally considered a **slower-acting agent** and less effective for initial treatment of symptomatic patients who require rapid copper mobilization. *Tetrathiomolybdate* - **Tetrathiomolybdate** is another **chelating agent** that works by forming complexes with copper in the bloodstream, preventing its uptake by tissues and enhancing excretion. - It is primarily used for **neurological Wilson's disease** due to its rapid effect on free copper and lower incidence of side effects compared to penicillamine, but it's not typically the first-line choice for general initial therapy, especially in the context of recurrent hepatitis. *Hepatic transplantation* - **Hepatic transplantation** is reserved for patients with Wilson's disease who develop **acute liver failure** or **end-stage liver disease** that does not respond to medical therapy. - It is a **definitive treatment** as it replaces the diseased liver with a healthy one capable of normal copper metabolism, but it is not the initial therapeutic approach for recurrent hepatitis when medical management is possible [1].

Question 1184: What is the primary cause of dumping syndrome?

A. Increased intestinal motility
B. Presence of hypertonic content in small intestine
C. Reduced gastric capacity
D. Rapid gastric emptying (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Rapid gastric emptying*** - **Rapid gastric emptying** means food moves too quickly from the stomach into the small intestine, leading to the characteristic symptoms of dumping syndrome [1]. - This quick transit of undigested food into the small intestine is often a consequence of gastric surgery where the normal regulatory mechanisms of the pyloric sphincter are disrupted. *Presence of hypertonic content in small intestine* - While the presence of **hypertonic content** in the small intestine is a *consequence* of rapid gastric emptying and contributes to the symptoms, it is not the primary cause of dumping syndrome itself. - The rapid entry of hypertonic chyme from the stomach into the small intestine draws fluid into the intestinal lumen, causing distension and contributing to many of the symptoms [1]. *Increased intestinal motility* - **Increased intestinal motility** can be a *symptom* or *secondary effect* of dumping syndrome, particularly in the later phase due to hormonal responses, but it is not the primary mechanism initiating the syndrome. - The rapid influx of food triggers various physiological responses, which can include changes in bowel movements. *Reduced gastric capacity* - **Reduced gastric capacity**, often a result of gastric surgery, can *contribute* to rapid gastric emptying by limiting the stomach's ability to hold and gradually release food. - However, it is a precursor state that facilitates rapid emptying rather than being the direct mechanism of dumping syndrome.

Question 1185: What is the most common cause of pyogenic liver abscess?

A. Biliary tract infection (Correct Answer)
B. Stricture of CBD
C. Sigmoid Diverticulitis
D. Appendicitis

Explanation: ***Biliary tract infection*** - **Ascending cholangitis**, often due to obstruction from stones or strictures, allows bacteria to ascend into the liver, making it the most frequent cause of **pyogenic liver abscess** [1]. - Pathogens typically involved are **enteric gram-negative rods** (e.g., *E. coli, Klebsiella*) and **enterococci**, which commonly colonize the biliary tree. *Stricture of CBD* - While a **stricture of the Common Bile Duct (CBD)** can lead to biliary stasis and **cholangitis**, it is a *cause* within the broader category of biliary tract infections, rather than the most common *overall cause* of pyogenic liver abscess [1]. - The stricture itself creates an environment prone to infection, but the actual infection of the biliary tract is the direct preceding event. *Appendicitis* - **Appendicitis** can lead to liver abscesses via the **portal vein** (pylephlebitis) if bacteremia from the inflamed appendix spreads to the liver. - However, this is a less common pathway compared to direct extension from biliary infections. *Sigmoid Diverticulitis* - **Sigmoid diverticulitis** can also cause liver abscesses through **pylephlebitis**, where bacteria from the infected diverticula spread via the portal venous system. - Similar to appendicitis, this is a less frequent cause of pyogenic liver abscess compared to biliary tract disease.

Question 1186: Which of the following statements about blind loop syndrome is false?

A. Syndrome of bacterial overgrowth
B. Surgery is not indicated (Correct Answer)
C. 14C-xylose or 14C-cholyglycine breath tests are indirect tests for bacterial overgrowth
D. Steatorrhea, megaloblastic anemia & deficiency of fat soluble vitamins

Explanation: ***Surgery is not indicated*** - This statement is **false** because surgery *is* often indicated for blind loop syndrome, especially when anatomical abnormalities like strictures, fistulas, or diverticula are the cause and cannot be managed by other means [1]. - Surgical intervention aims to **correct the underlying anatomical defect** that promotes bacterial overgrowth, thereby reducing symptoms and complications [1]. *Syndrome of bacterial overgrowth* - Blind loop syndrome is primarily characterized by **small intestinal bacterial overgrowth (SIBO)**, where excessive bacteria colonize the small intestine [1]. - This overgrowth leads to the malabsorption of nutrients and other gastrointestinal symptoms due to the bacterial metabolism of bile salts and carbohydrates. *Steatorrhea, megaloblastic anemia & deficiency of fat soluble vitamins* - The bacterial overgrowth in blind loop syndrome consumes **vitamin B12**, leading to its deficiency and subsequently **megaloblastic anemia**. - Bacteria deconjugate **bile salts**, impairing fat digestion and absorption, which results in **steatorrhea** and deficiencies of **fat-soluble vitamins** (A, D, E, K). *14C-xylose or 14C-cholyglycine breath tests are indirect tests for bacterial overgrowth* - The **14C-xylose breath test** measures the bacterial metabolism of xylose, which is normally absorbed in the small intestine, indicating bacterial overgrowth if excreted as 14CO2. - The **14C-cholyglycine breath test** detects bacterial deconjugation of bile salts; an increase in expired 14CO2 suggests excessive bacterial activity in the small bowel.

Question 1187: Which of the following is not a valid test for investigating fat malabsorption?

A. 13C Trioctanoin
B. 13C Triolein
C. 13C Triclosan (Correct Answer)
D. 13C Tripalmitin

Explanation: ***13C Triclosan*** - Triclosan is an **antimicrobial agent** and has no role in assessing fat digestion and absorption. - Its presence in the body does not reflect the function of the digestive system in processing fats. *13C Trioctanoin* - This is a **medium-chain triglyceride (MCT)** used in breath tests to assess the ability of the small intestine to absorb fats [2]. - Recovery of 13CO2 in the breath indicates efficient absorption of MCTs, which bypass the need for pancreatic lipase [2]. *13C Triolein* - Triolein is a **long-chain triglyceride (LCT)** used in breath tests to evaluate both pancreatic lipase activity (digestion) and intestinal absorption of fats [4]. - Reduced 13CO2 recovery suggests either **pancreatic insufficiency** or **small intestinal malabsorption** [3]. *13C Tripalmitin* - Tripalmitin is also an **LCT** and functions similarly to 13C Triolein in breath tests, requiring both pancreatic digestion and intestinal absorption [4]. - It helps differentiate between **pancreatic enzyme deficiency** and other causes of fat malabsorption [1].

Question 1188: Which vitamin is not deficient in celiac disease?

A. Vitamin D (Correct Answer)
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin A
D. Folic acid

Explanation: ***Vitamin D*** - While celiac disease affects nutrient absorption in the small intestine, it primarily impacts the **jejunum and ileum**, where most fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K) are absorbed. However, **Vitamin D deficiency is common in celiac disease** due to malabsorption of fats, along with calcium and phosphate, but it is not "not deficient" [1]. The question asks which vitamin is "not deficient," implying others are. In celiac disease, almost all nutrients can be malabsorbed. However, a common tricky question implies a relative sparing or less severe deficiency for specific vitamins. - The question is framed in a way that suggests there is *one* vitamin that is not deficient. In reality, celiac disease can cause malabsorption of almost all nutrients due to damage to the small intestine villi. However, if forced to pick a "least likely to be deficient" based on common presentations, there's no clear-cut answer among these. Given this is likely a poorly constructed question, let's assume it's hinting at a known clinical feature. If we consider that some vitamins can be absorbed in the distal ileum or colon, or that the deficiency isn't as universal or severe early on, the other options are more *classically and severely* impacted. However, Vitamin D *is* commonly deficient [1]. *Vitamin B12* - **Vitamin B12 absorption occurs primarily in the terminal ileum** via intrinsic factor. - While the jejunum is primarily affected in celiac disease, severe or long-standing celiac disease can cause damage to the ileum or affect overall gut function leading to **B12 deficiency**, especially if it impacts the distal small intestine [2]. *Vitamin A* - **Vitamin A is a fat-soluble vitamin** that requires adequate fat absorption for its uptake. - Patients with celiac disease often experience **fat malabsorption** due to villous atrophy in the small intestine, making Vitamin A deficiency common. *Folic acid* - **Folic acid is primarily absorbed in the jejunum**, which is the most severely affected part of the small intestine in celiac disease. - Therefore, **folic acid deficiency is highly prevalent** in untreated celiac disease due to impaired absorption [1].

Question 1189: Backwash ileitis is seen in

A. Ulcerative colitis (Correct Answer)
B. Colonic carcinoma
C. Crohn's disease
D. Ileal polyp

Explanation: ***Ulcerative colitis*** - Backwash ileitis occurs when inflammation from the colon extends to the **ileum**, commonly seen in patients with extensive ulcerative colitis [1]. - The condition is specifically noted in cases where there is a **prolonged and severe** colonic disease involving the rectum and left colon [1]. *heal polyp* - Heal polyps are generally not associated with **ileitis** or specific inflammatory bowel disease presentations. - They are benign growths and do not cause significant **intestinal inflammation** like ulcerative colitis does. *Crohn's disease* - Unlike backwash ileitis, Crohn's disease involves **transmural inflammation** that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. - Backwash ileitis specifically refers to the inflammatory changes that occur in the ileum due to underlying colonic disease [1]. *Colonic carcinoma* - Colonic carcinoma primarily presents with **malignant transformation** but does not typically cause ileitis. - There's no direct correlation between colonic carcinoma and backwash ileitis, as they represent different conditions.

Question 1190: A patient comes with abdominal pain, jaundice, and portal hypertension. Anastomosis between which of the following veins is seen?

A. Left colic vein and middle colic veins
B. Superior rectal and phrenic veins
C. Sigmoid and superior rectal veins
D. Esophageal veins and left gastric veins (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Esophageal veins and left gastric veins*** - This anastomosis is crucial in **portal hypertension**, as increased pressure in the **portal venous system** (e.g., due to liver cirrhosis) causes blood to back up into the **systemic venous circulation** through these collateral vessels. - This shunting creates **esophageal varices**, which can rupture and lead to life-threatening **upper gastrointestinal bleeding**, commonly presenting with **jaundice** and **abdominal pain** in liver disease. *Left colic vein and middle colic veins* - Both the left colic and middle colic veins are tributaries of the **inferior mesenteric vein** and **superior mesenteric vein**, respectively, and are part of the **portal system**. - While they form an anastomosis (via the **marginal artery of Drummond**), this connection is within the portal system and does not typically serve as a portosystemic shunt to decompress portal hypertension in the way esophageal varices do. *Superior rectal and phrenic veins* - The **superior rectal vein** drains into the **inferior mesenteric vein** (part of the portal system), and the **phrenic veins** drain into the **inferior vena cava** (part of the systemic system). - There is no direct significant portosystemic anastomosis between these two veins that would be clinically relevant in portal hypertension. *Sigmoid and superior rectal veins* - Both the **sigmoid veins** and the **superior rectal vein** are part of the **inferior mesenteric venous system**, which drains into the **portal circulation**. - While there are anastomoses between these veins within the mesenteric circulation, they are not a direct portosystemic shunt used to relieve pressure in portal hypertension causing the described symptoms.

Practice by Chapter

Esophageal Disorders

Practice Questions

Peptic Ulcer Disease

Practice Questions

Inflammatory Bowel Disease

Practice Questions

Irritable Bowel Syndrome

Practice Questions

Malabsorption Syndromes

Practice Questions

Pancreatitis (Acute and Chronic)

Practice Questions

Gastrointestinal Bleeding

Practice Questions

Liver Diseases and Cirrhosis

Practice Questions

Viral Hepatitis

Practice Questions

Biliary Tract Disorders

Practice Questions

Gastrointestinal Motility Disorders

Practice Questions

Gastrointestinal Malignancies

Practice Questions

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