Endocrinology Practice Questions

Q: Which drug is used in Acute Intermittent Porphyria?

Opioids. ### Explanation **Correct Option: A (Opioids)** Acute Intermittent Porphyria (AIP) is an autosomal dominant metabolic disorder caused by a deficiency of the enzyme **Porphobilinogen (PBG) deaminase** [1], [3]. The hallmark of an acute attack is severe, poorly localized abdominal pain [1]. **Opioids** (such as Morphine or Fentanyl) are the mainstay for pain management in AIP because they are considered "porphyrinogenic-safe." Unlike many other drugs, they do not induce the cytochrome P450 system or stimulate the enzyme ALA synthase, thus they do not exacerbate the underlying biochemical crisis [2]. **Why Incorrect Options are Wrong:** * **B & C (Phenobarbitone and Primidone):** These are potent inducers of the hepatic **Cytochrome P450 system**. Induction of these enzymes increases the demand for heme, which upregulates **ALA synthase** (the rate-limiting enzyme) [2]. This leads to a massive accumulation of toxic precursors (ALA and PBG), potentially triggering a life-threatening neurovisceral crisis [2], [3]. * **D (Blood Transfusion):** This is not a treatment for AIP. While blood transfusions (or phlebotomy) are relevant in *Porphyria Cutanea Tarda* to manage iron overload [1], they have no role in the acute management of AIP. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Management Triad for Acute Attack:** * **Stop offending drugs** (e.g., Barbiturates, Sulfonamides, Phenytoin) [1]. * **IV Glucose (Dextrose):** High carbohydrate intake inhibits ALA synthase. * **IV Hematin (Heme Arginate):** The specific treatment of choice; it provides negative feedback to shut down ALA synthase [2]. 2. **Classic Presentation:** "Painful abdomen, Polyneuropathy, and Psychosis" with urine that turns **dark/port-wine colored** on standing [1]. 3. **Diagnosis:** Elevated urinary **PBG** and **ALA** during an attack [3].

Q: Neutrophilic leukocytosis, lymphopenia, and eosinopenia are most likely associated with which of the following disorders?

Cushing syndrome. The correct answer is **Cushing syndrome**. This hematological pattern is a classic manifestation of **hypercortisolism** (excess glucocorticoids). **Mechanism:** Glucocorticoids influence the distribution and count of various white blood cells through several mechanisms: 1. **Neutrophilic Leukocytosis:** Cortisol causes "demargination" of neutrophils. It decreases the expression of adhesion molecules (L-selectin) on neutrophils, preventing them from sticking to the vascular endothelium. This shifts neutrophils from the marginal pool into the circulating pool, increasing the count. 2. **Lymphopenia & Eosinopenia:** Cortisol induces apoptosis of lymphocytes (especially T-cells) and sequesters them in the bone marrow and spleen [1]. It also inhibits the release of eosinophils from the bone marrow and promotes their peripheral destruction. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Endotoxic Shock:** Typically presents with initial leucopenia followed by leukocytosis; however, it is often associated with a "left shift" (increased bands) rather than the specific triad mentioned. * **Typhoid Fever:** Characteristically causes **leukopenia** and **aneosinophilia** (disappearance of eosinophils), but not neutrophilic leukocytosis. * **Whooping Cough (Pertussis):** Classically associated with absolute **lymphocytosis** (due to pertussis toxin blocking lymphocyte entry into lymph nodes) [1], which is the opposite of the lymphopenia seen in Cushing’s. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Steroid-induced Leukocytosis:** Always consider exogenous steroids or Cushing’s when you see high neutrophils with low eosinophils [1]. * **Aneosineophilia:** The complete absence of eosinophils is a sensitive marker for acute bacterial infections (e.g., Typhoid) or acute stress. * **Cushing’s Triad (Hematology):** Polycythemia, Neutrophilia, Lymphopenia, and Eosinopenia [2].

Q: Which of the following is a feature of primary adrenal cortical failure?

Sodium and water depletion. **Explanation:** Primary adrenal cortical failure (Addison’s disease) involves the destruction of the entire adrenal cortex, leading to a deficiency in both **cortisol** and **aldosterone** [1]. **1. Why "Sodium and water depletion" is correct:** Aldosterone is responsible for sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion in the distal renal tubules [3]. In primary adrenal failure, the lack of aldosterone leads to **renal salt wasting**. This results in hyponatremia, decreased intravascular volume, and dehydration (water depletion), which can progress to hypovolemic shock. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Hypopigmentation:** Incorrect. In primary failure, the low cortisol levels trigger a compensatory increase in ACTH [1]. Because ACTH shares a precursor with Melanocyte-Stimulating Hormone (POMC), patients develop **hyperpigmentation**, especially in skin creases and buccal mucosa. * **C. Hypertension:** Incorrect. Due to the loss of sodium and water, patients typically present with **hypotension** (often orthostatic). * **D. Hypokalemia:** Incorrect. Aldosterone deficiency prevents potassium excretion, leading to **hyperkalemia** and metabolic acidosis [2]. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Diagnosis:** The gold standard is the **ACTH Stimulation Test** (Cosyntropin test) [2]. A failure of cortisol to rise indicates adrenal insufficiency. * **Electrolyte Triad:** Hyponatremia + Hyperkalemia + Azotemia (due to dehydration). * **Secondary vs. Primary:** Secondary adrenal failure (pituitary cause) does **not** feature hyperpigmentation (low ACTH) and usually has normal potassium levels (aldosterone is primarily regulated by the RAAS, not ACTH). * **Most Common Cause:** Worldwide, Tuberculosis; in developed nations, Autoimmune Adrenalitis [1].

Q: A patient presents with arthritis, hyperpigmentation of the skin, and hypogonadism. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hemochromatosis. **Explanation:** The clinical triad of **arthritis, hyperpigmentation, and hypogonadism** is a classic presentation of **Hereditary Hemochromatosis (HH)**, often referred to as "Bronze Diabetes." [1] 1. **Why Hemochromatosis is correct:** Hemochromatosis is a disorder of iron overload where excess iron deposits in various organs, leading to multi-system dysfunction: * **Hyperpigmentation:** Iron deposition and increased melanin production give the skin a "bronze" or metallic grey appearance. * **Hypogonadism:** Iron deposition in the **pituitary gland** (siderosis) leads to secondary hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, causing decreased libido and impotence. * **Arthritis:** Characteristically involves the **2nd and 3rd metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints** due to calcium pyrophosphate deposition. [1] * **Diabetes Mellitus:** Occurs due to iron deposition in the pancreas. 2. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Ectopic ACTH Tumor:** While it causes hyperpigmentation (due to MSH-like activity), it typically presents with features of Cushing syndrome (hypertension, hypokalemia, muscle wasting) rather than arthritis or hypogonadism. * **Wilson’s Disease:** This is a disorder of copper metabolism. It primarily affects the liver and basal ganglia (Kayser-Fleischer rings, tremors), not typically presenting with the "bronze" triad. * **Rheumatoid Arthritis:** While it explains the arthritis, it does not account for hyperpigmentation or endocrine dysfunction like hypogonadism. **High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls:** * **Gene Mutation:** Most commonly the **HFE gene** (C282Y mutation) on Chromosome 6. * **Best Initial Test:** Transferrin saturation (>45%). * **Gold Standard Diagnosis:** Liver biopsy (Perls' Prussian blue stain) or MRI (T2*). * **Treatment of Choice:** Therapeutic phlebotomy. * **Classic Joint Finding:** "Hook-like" osteophytes on X-ray of the MCP joints.

Q: Chronic adrenal insufficiency is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

Weight gain. **Explanation:** Chronic primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison’s disease) results from the destruction of the adrenal cortex, leading to a deficiency in cortisol, aldosterone, and adrenal androgens [1]. **Why Weight Gain is the Correct Answer:** Weight gain is **not** a feature of adrenal insufficiency. In fact, **weight loss** and anorexia are hallmark clinical signs [2]. The lack of cortisol leads to a catabolic state and gastrointestinal disturbances (nausea, vomiting), while the lack of aldosterone causes salt wasting and dehydration, further contributing to weight reduction. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Excess Pigmentation:** In primary adrenal insufficiency, low cortisol triggers a compensatory increase in ACTH [2]. ACTH is derived from Pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC), which also produces Melanocyte-Stimulating Hormone (MSH). High ACTH levels stimulate melanocytes, causing hyperpigmentation (especially in skin creases, scars, and buccal mucosa). * **Asthenia:** This refers to physical weakness or lack of energy. It is the most common presenting symptom (seen in nearly 100% of cases) due to cortisol deficiency and electrolyte imbalances [2]. * **Hypoglycemic Episodes:** Cortisol is a counter-regulatory hormone that promotes gluconeogenesis. Its absence leads to increased insulin sensitivity and decreased glucose production, resulting in fasting hypoglycemia. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Most common cause:** Autoimmune adrenalitis (developed countries); Tuberculosis (developing countries/India) [3]. * **Electrolyte Triad:** Hyponatremia, Hyperkalemia, and Metabolic Acidosis. * **Diagnosis:** Best initial test is the Morning Serum Cortisol; Gold standard is the ACTH Stimulation Test (Cosyntropin test) [2]. * **Treatment:** Lifelong replacement of glucocorticoids (Hydrocortisone) and mineralocorticoids (Fludrocortisone) [3].

Q: Which condition is characterized by insulin resistance leading to hyperglycemia?

Acromegaly. **Explanation:** **Correct Option: A. Acromegaly** Acromegaly is characterized by the hypersecretion of Growth Hormone (GH), usually due to a pituitary adenoma [1]. GH is a potent **counter-regulatory hormone** that antagonizes the actions of insulin. It induces hyperglycemia through two primary mechanisms: 1. **Increased Gluconeogenesis:** It stimulates the liver to produce more glucose. 2. **Peripheral Insulin Resistance:** It reduces glucose uptake in skeletal muscle and adipose tissue by interfering with post-receptor insulin signaling. Approximately 30–50% of acromegalic patients develop impaired glucose tolerance or overt "Pituitary Diabetes" [2]. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B. Osteomalacia:** This is a metabolic bone disease characterized by defective mineralization of the osteoid, usually due to Vitamin D deficiency. It has no direct association with insulin resistance or hyperglycemia. * **C. Liver Cell Carcinoma (HCC):** HCC is more commonly associated with **hypoglycemia** (as a paraneoplastic syndrome) due to high metabolic demands of the tumor or the secretion of IGF-II ("Non-islet cell tumor hypoglycemia"). * **D. Somatostatinoma:** While this tumor causes hyperglycemia, it does so by **inhibiting the secretion of insulin** from pancreatic beta cells, rather than causing insulin resistance. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Secondary Diabetes:** Other endocrine causes of hyperglycemia include Cushing’s syndrome (excess cortisol) [3], Pheochromocytoma (excess catecholamines), and Glucagonoma. * **Screening for Acromegaly:** The best initial screening test is **Serum IGF-1** levels (stable throughout the day) [1]. * **Confirmatory Test:** The **Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT)**; failure to suppress GH levels below 1 ng/mL after 75g of glucose is diagnostic [2].

Q: Which of the following can be present in hyperosmolar coma in a diabetic patient?

High plasma ketones. **Explanation:** Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS), formerly known as hyperosmolar coma, is a metabolic complication of Diabetes Mellitus (usually Type 2). The hallmark of HHS is extreme hyperglycemia and hyperosmolality without significant ketoacidosis. **Why Option D is Correct:** While HHS is characterized by the *absence* of significant ketosis (due to enough endogenous insulin being present to inhibit lipolysis), the term "High plasma ketones" in this specific question context refers to the fact that **mild ketonemia** can indeed be present. According to standard diagnostic criteria, while DKA has high ketones, HHS patients can still have small amounts of ketones (typically 600 mg/dL (often much higher than in DKA). * **B. Low plasma potassium:** Incorrect. While total body potassium is depleted due to osmotic diuresis, the **initial plasma potassium** is usually normal or high due to insulin deficiency and hypertonicity shifting K+ out of cells [1]. * **C. High plasma pH:** Incorrect. While HHS does not feature the profound metabolic acidosis seen in DKA, the pH is usually **normal (>7.30)** or slightly low. It is never "high" (alkalotic) as a primary feature of the condition. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Diagnostic Triad of HHS:** Plasma glucose >600 mg/dL, Serum Osmolality >320 mOsm/kg, and absence of significant ketoacidosis [2]. * **Fluid Deficit:** HHS involves massive dehydration; the fluid deficit is typically 8–12 Liters (higher than DKA). * **Management:** Aggressive fluid resuscitation with Normal Saline is the priority, followed by insulin [2]. Always monitor for cerebral edema during treatment.

Q: A 63-year-old asymptomatic woman presents with a persistently elevated alkaline phosphatase (ALP) level as an isolated finding, with normal remaining liver enzymes. She reports no abdominal symptoms. Physical examination reveals normal vital signs, no icterus, normal heart sounds, clear lungs, and a soft abdomen with a liver span of 12 cm. X-rays of the pelvis show multiple porotic and sclerotic lesions with characteristic whorls of trabeculation. Her urinary hydroxyproline excretion is also elevated. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Paget disease of bone. **Explanation:** The clinical presentation is classic for **Paget Disease of Bone (Osteitis Deformans)**. This condition is characterized by disordered bone remodeling, where excessive bone resorption is followed by disorganized, high-volume bone formation [1]. **Why Option D is correct:** 1. **Isolated Elevated ALP:** In asymptomatic elderly patients, an isolated rise in Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP) with normal GGT and bilirubin is the hallmark of Paget disease. 2. **Radiological Findings:** The description of "porotic and sclerotic lesions" with "whorls of trabeculation" (often called a "mosaic pattern" or "cotton wool appearance") is pathognomonic. 3. **Biochemical Markers:** Elevated **urinary hydroxyproline** and serum N-telopeptide reflect increased collagen breakdown due to high osteoclastic activity. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **A & C (Rickets/Osteomalacia/Vit D Deficiency):** These typically present with **low or low-normal serum calcium and phosphate**, and high PTH [2]. Radiologically, they show decreased bone density and Looser’s zones (pseudofractures), not the sclerotic/thickened bone seen here. * **B (Osteogenic Sarcoma):** While a known complication of Paget disease (occurring in <1%), it usually presents with localized pain, a soft tissue mass, and a "sunburst" appearance on X-ray, rather than generalized pelvic trabeculation in an asymptomatic patient. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Most common site:** Pelvis, followed by the skull, femur, and tibia [1]. * **Hearing loss:** Occurs due to involvement of the skull (enlargement of the bone compressing CN VIII). * **High-output Heart Failure:** Can occur in extensive disease due to increased vascularity in the remodeling bone [1]. * **Treatment of choice:** Bisphosphonates (e.g., Zoledronic acid). * **Calcium/Phosphate levels:** Usually **normal** in Paget disease (unlike hyperparathyroidism or osteomalacia).

Question 1

A 39-year-old obese patient presents with features of a Urinary Tract Infection (UTI) and a Random Blood Sugar (RBS) of 200 mg/dL. Urine analysis shows pus cells. What is true about the management?

Accepted Answer

Insulin can be administered.

Answer

Glipizide is the drug of choice.

Answer

Ciprofloxacin is indicated.

Answer

Testing for microalbuminuria is indicated.

Question 2

Which drug is used in Acute Intermittent Porphyria?

Accepted Answer

Opioids

Answer

Phenobarbitone

Answer

Primidone

Answer

Blood transfusion

Question 3

Neutrophilic leukocytosis, lymphopenia, and eosinopenia are most likely associated with which of the following disorders?

Accepted Answer

Cushing syndrome

Answer

Endotoxic shock

Answer

Typhoid fever

Answer

Whooping cough

Question 4

What is the treatment of choice for renal osteodystrophy?

Accepted Answer

Phosphate binder

Answer

Phosphorus

Answer

Olendronate

Answer

Calcium restriction

Question 5

Which of the following is a feature of primary adrenal cortical failure?

Accepted Answer

Sodium and water depletion

Answer

Hypopigmentation

Answer

Hypertension

Answer

Hypokalemia

Question 6

A patient presents with arthritis, hyperpigmentation of the skin, and hypogonadism. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Hemochromatosis

Answer

Ectopic ACTH secreting tumor of the lung

Answer

Wilson's disease

Answer

Rheumatoid arthritis

Question 7

Chronic adrenal insufficiency is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

Accepted Answer

Weight gain

Answer

Excess pigmentation

Answer

Asthenia

Answer

Hypoglycemic episodes

Question 8

Which condition is characterized by insulin resistance leading to hyperglycemia?

Accepted Answer

Acromegaly

Answer

Osteomalacia

Answer

Liver cell carcinoma

Answer

Somatostatinoma

Question 9

Which of the following can be present in hyperosmolar coma in a diabetic patient?

Accepted Answer

High plasma ketones

Answer

Low plasma glucose

Answer

Low plasma potassium

Answer

High plasma pH

Question 10

A 63-year-old asymptomatic woman presents with a persistently elevated alkaline phosphatase (ALP) level as an isolated finding, with normal remaining liver enzymes. She reports no abdominal symptoms. Physical examination reveals normal vital signs, no icterus, normal heart sounds, clear lungs, and a soft abdomen with a liver span of 12 cm. X-rays of the pelvis show multiple porotic and sclerotic lesions with characteristic whorls of trabeculation. Her urinary hydroxyproline excretion is also elevated. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Paget disease of bone

Answer

Rickets and osteomalacia

Answer

Osteogenic sarcoma

Answer

Vitamin D deficiency

Endocrinology — MCQs

Endocrinology — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?