Endocrinology Practice Questions

Q: A 63-year-old man recently treated for renal tuberculosis presents with weight loss, diarrhea, hypoglycemia, hypotension, and is noted to have hyperpigmented buccal mucosa, palmar and hand creases. Which investigation is most suitable for this clinical presentation?

Plasma ACTH and cortisol. **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of weight loss, diarrhea, hypoglycemia, and hypotension, combined with characteristic **hyperpigmentation** (buccal mucosa and palmar creases), is a classic description of **Primary Adrenal Insufficiency (Addison’s Disease)** [1]. In this patient, the history of **renal tuberculosis** is a critical clue, as TB remains a leading cause of adrenal destruction (Adrenal TB) [2]. 1. **Why Option C is correct:** The diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency is confirmed by demonstrating low cortisol levels. High **Plasma ACTH** levels (due to loss of negative feedback) confirm the site of pathology is the adrenal gland (Primary) rather than the pituitary (Secondary) [1]. Hyperpigmentation occurs because ACTH and Melanocyte-Stimulating Hormone (MSH) share a common precursor, Pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC). 2. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Option A:** Iron studies are for Hemochromatosis. While it causes skin bronzing, it typically presents with diabetes ("bronze diabetes") and cirrhosis, not hypotension or hypoglycemia. * **Option B:** Copper studies are for Wilson’s disease, which presents with liver failure and neuropsychiatric symptoms, not adrenal crisis. * **Option D:** While GeneXpert is used to diagnose active TB, it does not assess organ function. IVP is an outdated imaging modality for renal anatomy and is not used to diagnose endocrine failure. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common cause worldwide:** Autoimmune adrenalitis. * **Most common cause in India:** Tuberculosis [2]. * **Electrolyte Triad:** Hyponatremia, Hyperkalemia, and Metabolic Acidosis. * **Gold Standard Test:** ACTH Stimulation Test (Cosyntropin test) [1]. * **Imaging:** In TB, CT may show enlarged, calcified adrenal glands [1].

Q: Conn's syndrome is associated with all of the following, except:

Edema. Explanation: Conn’s Syndrome (Primary Hyperaldosteronism) is characterized by the autonomous overproduction of aldosterone, usually due to an adrenal adenoma [2]. Why Edema is the Correct Answer (The "Aldosterone Escape" Phenomenon): Despite significant sodium and water retention caused by excess aldosterone, patients with Conn’s syndrome **do not** typically present with clinical edema [1]. This is due to the **"Aldosterone Escape"** mechanism: the initial volume expansion triggers the release of Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP) and increases the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), leading to pressure natriuresis [1]. This compensates for the sodium retention, preventing fluid overload and edema. Analysis of Incorrect Options: * **A. Hypertension:** Aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption in the distal tubules, leading to volume expansion and high blood pressure. It is a classic cause of secondary hypertension [3]. * **B. Muscle Weakness:** This is a clinical manifestation of severe hypokalemia [4]. Low potassium levels interfere with muscle cell membrane potential, leading to fatigue or even paralysis. * **C. Hypokalemia:** Aldosterone promotes potassium excretion in exchange for sodium at the cortical collecting duct [4]. This results in low serum potassium, often accompanied by metabolic alkalosis (plasma HCO₃⁻ elevation [3]). NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls: 1. **Screening Test:** Plasma Aldosterone Concentration (PAC) to Plasma Renin Activity (PRA) ratio. A ratio **>20-30** is highly suggestive. 2. **Confirmatory Test:** Saline infusion test (failure to suppress aldosterone) or Oral Salt Loading test. 3. **Triad:** Hypertension + Hypokalemia + Metabolic Alkalosis [3]. 4. **Treatment:** Surgical excision for adenoma (Conn's); Spironolactone (Aldosterone antagonist) for bilateral adrenal hyperplasia.

Q: A 55-year-old male patient underwent cholecystectomy for gallstone calculus. During surgery, the patient's pulse was irregularly irregular, 160/min, BP = 80/50 mm of Hg, and temperature was 40°C. On examination, a swelling in the neck was found. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Thyroid storm. **Explanation:** The clinical presentation described—**hyperpyrexia (40°C)**, **tachyarrhythmia** (irregularly irregular pulse of 160/min, likely Atrial Fibrillation), and **hemodynamic instability** (BP 80/50 mmHg) in the presence of a **neck swelling** (goiter)—is a classic triad for **Thyroid Storm**. Thyroid storm is a life-threatening exacerbation of hyperthyroidism. In this case, the stress of surgery (cholecystectomy) acted as the precipitating factor. The "irregularly irregular" pulse indicates Atrial Fibrillation, a common complication of thyrotoxicosis due to increased sensitivity to catecholamines. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Myocardial Infarction:** While it can cause hypotension and tachycardia, it does not typically present with high-grade fever (40°C) or a neck swelling. * **Arrhythmia:** This is a *finding* (symptom) in this case, not the primary diagnosis. The arrhythmia is secondary to the underlying thyrotoxic state. * **Stridor:** This is a physical sign of upper airway obstruction (often post-thyroidectomy due to nerve injury or hematoma) and does not explain the systemic symptoms of fever and hypotension. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Precipitating factors:** Infection, trauma, surgery (especially in undiagnosed hyperthyroid patients), or DKA. * **Burch-Wartofsky Point Scale:** Used to diagnose Thyroid Storm based on thermoregulatory dysfunction, CNS effects, GI-hepatic dysfunction, and cardiovascular status. * **Management (The "P"s):** **P**ropylthiouracil (blocks synthesis and peripheral T4 to T3 conversion), **P**ropanolol (beta-blockade), **P**otassium Iodide (Lugol’s iodine to block hormone release), and **P**rednisolone (steroids).

Q: A 42-year-old man presents with dizziness on standing. His systolic blood pressure falls by 50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 52/min. What is the likely cause?

Pheochromocytoma. **Explanation:** The clinical presentation describes **orthostatic hypotension** (a drop in systolic BP ≥20 mmHg) accompanied by **inappropriate bradycardia** (lack of compensatory tachycardia) [1]. In **Pheochromocytoma**, while the classic triad is headache, sweating, and palpitations, chronic excess of catecholamines leads to severe **volume depletion** due to pressure natriuresis and chronic vasoconstriction. When the patient stands, the depleted intravascular volume causes a significant drop in blood pressure [2]. The presence of bradycardia (or a lack of tachycardia) in this context is a high-yield NEET-PG finding, often attributed to **baroreceptor resetting** or catecholamine-induced cardiomyopathy/autonomic dysfunction [3]. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Congestive Heart Failure (CHF):** While CHF can cause hypotension, it typically presents with compensatory tachycardia and signs of fluid overload (edema, JVP elevation), not bradycardia. * **Inferior Wall MI:** While this can cause bradycardia (due to Bezold-Jarisch reflex or SA/AV node ischemia), it presents with acute chest pain and ECG changes, and orthostatic hypotension is not the primary presenting feature. * **Theophylline Toxicity:** This typically causes **tachycardia**, arrhythmias, and seizures due to its phosphodiesterase inhibition and adenosine antagonism. **NEET-PG Clinical Pearls:** * **Rule of 10s for Pheo:** 10% bilateral, 10% malignant, 10% extra-adrenal (Paraganglioma), 10% pediatric, 10% familial. * **Orthostatic Hypotension in Pheo:** Paradoxically, a patient with hypertension who also shows orthostatic hypotension is a classic clue for Pheochromocytoma. * **Pre-op Management:** Always give **Alpha-blockers first** (e.g., Phenoxybenzamine) followed by Beta-blockers to avoid an uninhibited alpha-mediated hypertensive crisis.

Q: A 40-year-old patient presented with excessive skin pigmentation of the face, neck, and extensor aspects of the forearms. The patient has diabetes, anhidrosis, and dyspnea on exertion (Class III). Clinical examination revealed hepatosplenomegaly and spider angiomata. Which of the following is NOT true about this condition?

Females are commonly affected.. The clinical presentation of **Bronze Diabetes** (skin pigmentation, diabetes, and hepatosplenomegaly) combined with cardiac failure and anhidrosis strongly points to a diagnosis of **Hereditary Hemochromatosis (HH)** [1]. ### **Explanation of Options** * **Why Option C is NOT true (Correct Answer):** Hereditary Hemochromatosis is an autosomal recessive disorder, but it shows a **marked male predominance** (approx. 10:1). Females are protected during their reproductive years because physiological iron loss through **menstruation and pregnancy** prevents the toxic accumulation of iron. Clinical symptoms in women typically appear only after menopause. * **Option A is true:** The most common form of HH is caused by a mutation in the **HFE gene** (specifically the C282Y mutation) [2] on chromosome 6 [1], leading to increased intestinal iron absorption. * **Option B is true:** Patients with HH and cirrhosis have a significantly elevated risk (up to 200-fold) of developing **Hepatocellular Carcinoma (HCC)** [1]. It is a leading cause of death in these patients. * **Option D is true:** Iron deposition in the myocardium leads to restrictive or dilated cardiomyopathy. **Congestive Cardiac Failure (CCF)** and arrhythmias are the most common cardiac manifestations. ### **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG** * **Classic Triad:** Cirrhosis, Diabetes Mellitus, and Skin Pigmentation ("Bronze Diabetes") [1]. * **Earliest Sign:** Arthropathy (typically involving the 2nd and 3rd metacarpophalangeal joints). * **Screening:** The best initial test is **Transferrin Saturation** (>45% is suggestive). * **Gold Standard Diagnosis:** Liver biopsy with Perl’s Prussian blue stain (to calculate the Hepatic Iron Index) or MRI (T2* weighted) [2]. * **Treatment of Choice:** Therapeutic Phlebotomy (Goal: Serum ferritin 50–100 ng/mL) [2].

Q: A 49-year-old male schoolteacher presents with a neck swelling that has a palpable bounding pulse. Which test would be most likely to establish a possible cause of the underlying condition?

Thyroid function studies. ### Explanation **Correct Answer: C. Thyroid function studies** The clinical finding of a **palpable bounding pulse** over a neck swelling (thyroid gland) is a classic sign of increased vascularity. This is most commonly associated with **Graves' disease** (hyperthyroidism). In Graves' disease, the thyroid gland becomes hypermetabolic and hypervascular; the increased blood flow can manifest as a palpable **thrill** or an audible **bruit** [1]. Therefore, the most logical step to establish the underlying cause (hyperthyroidism) is performing **Thyroid Function Studies** (TSH, Free T3, and Free T4) [1]. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Funduscopic eye examination:** While Graves' disease is associated with ophthalmopathy (exophthalmos), fundoscopy is primarily used to evaluate retinal changes (e.g., hypertension or diabetes) and would not diagnose the cause of a vascular neck swelling. * **B. Liver-spleen scan:** This is used to evaluate hepatosplenomegaly or functional reticuloendothelial issues and has no diagnostic value for thyroid pathology. * **D. X-ray of the chest and cervical spine:** While these might show tracheal deviation or retrosternal extension in a large goiter, they provide no information regarding the functional or vascular status of the gland. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Vascular Goiter:** A bruit or thrill over the thyroid is almost pathognomonic for **Graves' disease**. It is rarely seen in other forms of goiter [1]. * **Pemberton’s Sign:** If a large goiter causes facial flushing and inspiratory stridor when the patient raises both arms, it indicates superior vena cava syndrome due to a retrosternal goiter. * **Diagnosis:** The initial screening test for thyroid dysfunction is **Serum TSH** [1]. In Graves', TSH is suppressed, while T3 and T4 are elevated. * **Triad of Graves':** Hyperthyroidism, Exophthalmos, and Pretibial Myxedema (Dermopathy).

Q: Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus that warrants early screening for diabetes?

Alcoholism. **Explanation:** The screening criteria for Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (T2DM) in asymptomatic adults are primarily based on the **ADA (American Diabetes Association) guidelines**. Screening is indicated for all adults starting at age 35, or earlier in individuals who are overweight/obese (BMI ≥25 kg/m² or ≥23 kg/m² in Asians) and have one or more additional risk factors. **Why Alcoholism is the Correct Answer:** While chronic excessive alcohol consumption can lead to chronic pancreatitis (resulting in Type 3c diabetes), [1] **alcoholism itself is not a standardized risk factor** for the early screening of T2DM in asymptomatic individuals. In fact, moderate alcohol consumption has sometimes been paradoxically associated with improved insulin sensitivity, though it is never recommended as a preventive measure. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Family History:** A first-degree relative with diabetes significantly increases genetic predisposition, warranting early screening. * **Hypertension:** Blood pressure ≥140/90 mmHg or being on therapy for hypertension is a core component of metabolic syndrome and a major risk factor for insulin resistance. * **Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS):** PCOS is strongly associated with profound insulin resistance and acanthosis nigricans, placing these women at a high risk for early-onset T2DM. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Other Screening Criteria:** HDL cholesterol 250 mg/dL, History of Gestational Diabetes (GDM), and Physical Inactivity. * **Asian-Specific Cut-off:** For the Indian population, a **BMI ≥23 kg/m²** is the threshold to trigger screening if other risk factors are present. * **Prediabetes:** Individuals with HbA1c ≥5.7%, [2] Impaired Glucose Tolerance (IGT), or Impaired Fasting Glucose (IFG) should be tested annually.

Q: A combination of gynaecomastia, decreased serum testosterone and LH in a male patient is seen in:

Sertoli cell tumor. The clinical triad of **gynaecomastia, decreased testosterone, and decreased LH** indicates a state of secondary hypogonadism driven by estrogen excess. **Why Sertoli Cell Tumor is correct:** Sertoli cell tumors are rare sex cord-stromal tumors of the testis. These tumors often overexpress the enzyme **aromatase**, which converts androgens into **estrogens** (estradiol) [1]. 1. **Gynaecomastia:** High estrogen levels directly stimulate breast tissue [2]. 2. **Decreased LH:** Elevated estrogen exerts powerful **negative feedback** on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary, suppressing the secretion of GnRH and LH [1]. 3. **Decreased Testosterone:** Low LH levels result in a lack of stimulation to the Leydig cells, leading to reduced endogenous testosterone production [1]. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Testicular Failure (Primary Hypogonadism):** Characterized by low testosterone but **elevated LH/FSH** (hypergonadotropic hypogonadism) due to the loss of negative feedback [1]. * **Gonadotrophins (Exogenous administration):** Administration of hCG (which mimics LH) would typically **increase** testosterone levels, not decrease them. * **Androgen Resistance State (e.g., AIS):** Caused by defective androgen receptors. This leads to **elevated LH** and **elevated testosterone** because the pituitary is "blind" to the feedback of circulating androgens. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Leydig Cell Tumors** are the most common sex cord-stromal tumors and can also cause gynaecomastia via similar mechanisms (increased aromatization). * **Feedback Loop:** Always check LH levels to differentiate between primary (High LH) and secondary (Low LH) hypogonadism [1]. * **Estrogen/Androgen Ratio:** Gynaecomastia is fundamentally caused by an increase in the ratio of free estrogen to effective androgens [2].

Question 1

A 63-year-old man recently treated for renal tuberculosis presents with weight loss, diarrhea, hypoglycemia, hypotension, and is noted to have hyperpigmented buccal mucosa, palmar and hand creases. Which investigation is most suitable for this clinical presentation?

Accepted Answer

Plasma ACTH and cortisol

Answer

Serum iron and ferritin

Answer

Serum copper and ceruloplasmin

Answer

Gene XPERT and Intravenous pyelography

Question 2

Conn's syndrome is associated with all of the following, except:

Accepted Answer

Edema

Answer

Hypertension

Answer

Muscle weakness

Answer

Hypokalemia

Question 3

A 55-year-old male patient underwent cholecystectomy for gallstone calculus. During surgery, the patient's pulse was irregularly irregular, 160/min, BP = 80/50 mm of Hg, and temperature was 40°C. On examination, a swelling in the neck was found. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Thyroid storm

Answer

Myocardial infarction

Answer

Arrhythmia

Answer

Stridor

Question 4

A 42-year-old man presents with dizziness on standing. His systolic blood pressure falls by 50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 52/min. What is the likely cause?

Accepted Answer

Pheochromocytoma

Answer

Congestive heart failure

Answer

Inferior wall myocardial infarction

Answer

Theophylline toxicity

Question 5

A woman recovers from severe postpartum hemorrhage and subsequently complains of failure of lactation and menstruation. Which of the following findings is most likely to be observed?

Accepted Answer

Increased excretion of sodium

Answer

Water retention

Answer

Increased prolactin levels

Answer

Increased GnRH levels

Question 6

All the following statements regarding postpartum thyroiditis are true, EXCEPT:

Accepted Answer

The risk of recurrence in subsequent pregnancy is < 10%.

Answer

Hyperthyroidism may be present in the first 3 months after delivery.

Answer

Hypothyroidism may be present a few months after delivery.

Answer

Thyroid function may be normal after 1 year.

Question 7

A 40-year-old patient presented with excessive skin pigmentation of the face, neck, and extensor aspects of the forearms. The patient has diabetes, anhidrosis, and dyspnea on exertion (Class III). Clinical examination revealed hepatosplenomegaly and spider angiomata. Which of the following is NOT true about this condition?

Accepted Answer

Females are commonly affected.

Answer

It is caused by a mutant gene termed HFE.

Answer

The risk of hepatocellular carcinoma is very high.

Answer

The most common cardiac manifestation is congestive cardiac failure (CCF).

Question 8

A 49-year-old male schoolteacher presents with a neck swelling that has a palpable bounding pulse. Which test would be most likely to establish a possible cause of the underlying condition?

Accepted Answer

Thyroid function studies

Answer

Funduscopic eye examination

Answer

Liver-spleen scan

Answer

X-ray of the chest and cervical spine

Question 9

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus that warrants early screening for diabetes?

Accepted Answer

Alcoholism

Answer

Family history

Answer

Hypertension

Answer

Polycystic ovary syndrome

Question 10

A combination of gynaecomastia, decreased serum testosterone and LH in a male patient is seen in:

Accepted Answer

Sertoli cell tumor

Answer

Testicular failure

Answer

Gonadotrophins

Answer

Androgen resistance state

Endocrinology — MCQs

Endocrinology — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?