Cardiology — MCQs
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Willem Einthoven got Nobel Prize for:
Which congenital heart defect is characteristically associated with differential cyanosis?
A case of severe mitral stenosis is associated with all of the following features, EXCEPT:
A 55-year-old woman with metastatic lung cancer presents with dyspnea and pedal edema. On examination, the jugular venous pressure is 10 cm, with a negative Kussmaul's sign. The heart sounds are diminished, and the lungs have bibasilar crackles. The electrocardiogram shows QRS complexes of variable height. For the patient with shortness of breath and peripheral edema, select the most likely diagnosis.
Ebstein's anomaly is associated with which of the following?
What is the threshold for defining a wide QRS duration?
Which score is calculated during the exercise tolerance test for assessing chronic stable angina?
Following are the risk factors of atherosclerosis, except?
A 65-year-old woman with a history of atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) presents with palpitations lasting 4 hours. Her heart rate is 180 beats per minute, blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, and neck veins are distended. Auscultation reveals a carotid artery bruit, a loud S1, and a narrow split S2. Bilateral basal crepitations are noted on chest examination. Which of the following treatments is contraindicated for this patient?
What is the treatment for acute cardiac tamponade?
Cardiology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1641: Willem Einthoven got Nobel Prize for:
- A. Penicillin
- B. Insulin
- C. ECG (Correct Answer)
- D. Plasmodium life cycle
Explanation: ***ECG*** - **Willem Einthoven** was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in **1924** for his discovery of the mechanism of the **electrocardiogram (ECG)**. - He developed the first practical **string galvanometer**, which allowed for the accurate recording of the heart's electrical activity [1]. *Insulin* - **Frederick Banting** and **John Macleod** received the Nobel Prize in **1923** for the discovery of **insulin**. - While a significant discovery, it is not attributed to Willem Einthoven. *Plasmodium life cycle* - The discovery of the **Plasmodium life cycle** and its role in malaria was primarily recognized with the Nobel Prize in **1902** to **Ronald Ross**. - Einthoven's work was unrelated to parasitic diseases. *Penicillin* - **Alexander Fleming** discovered penicillin in **1928**, and **Howard Florey** and **Ernst Chain** were instrumental in its development as a therapeutic agent, sharing the Nobel Prize in **1945**. - This discovery came much later than Einthoven's work and was in a different field.
Question 1642: Which congenital heart defect is characteristically associated with differential cyanosis?
- A. Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection (TAPVC) (Correct Answer)
- B. Ebstein anomaly (EA)
- C. Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)
- D. Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)
Explanation: Detailed understanding of congenital heart defects is essential for clinical diagnosis. ***Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection (TAPVC)*** - TAPVC can occasionally present with **differential cyanosis**, especially when there is **obstruction** to the pulmonary venous return and associated systemic-to-pulmonary shunts or right-to-left shunting at the atrial level. - While less common than in patent ductus arteriosus, severe forms of TAPVC with **pulmonary hypertension** and reversed shunting can lead to disparities in oxygen saturation between upper and lower extremities. *Ebstein anomaly (EA)* - While Ebstein anomaly can cause **cyanosis** due to a **right-to-left shunt** at the atrial level through a patent foramen ovale or ASD, it typically results in **generalized cyanosis**, not differential cyanosis. - The malformation of the **tricuspid valve** leads to atrialization of the right ventricle, causing severe right heart failure and elevated right atrial pressures, but usually uniform desaturation. *Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)* - TOF is a common cyanotic heart defect characterized by **pulmonary stenosis**, VSD, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy, leading to **generalized cyanosis** [1]. - Cyanosis in TOF is due to the **right-to-left shunt** across the VSD, allowing deoxygenated blood to enter the systemic circulation uniformly [1]. *Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)* - An uncomplicated VSD typically causes a **left-to-right shunt**, leading to **acyanotic congenital heart disease**. - In cases of severe **pulmonary hypertension** (Eisenmenger syndrome), the shunt can reverse to right-to-left, causing generalized cyanosis, rather than differential cyanosis.
Question 1643: A case of severe mitral stenosis is associated with all of the following features, EXCEPT:
- A. Atrial fibrillation
- B. Increase in the length of murmur
- C. Pulsatile liver
- D. Opening snap delayed from S2 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Opening snap delayed from S2*** - In severe mitral stenosis, the opening snap (OS) occurs **earlier** after S2 because the left atrial pressure (LA) is very high and rapidly exceeds the left ventricular pressure (LV), forcing the stiff mitral valve to open sooner. [1] - A **delayed opening snap** from S2 would suggest less severe mitral stenosis, as it takes longer for the LA pressure to overcome the LV pressure. [3] *Pulsatile liver* - This finding suggests **tricuspid regurgitation**, which can occur due to right heart failure secondary to severe pulmonary hypertension from long-standing severe mitral stenosis. [1] - The pulsatile liver is caused by retrograde flow through the incompetent tricuspid valve into the hepatic veins and inferior vena cava. *Atrial fibrillation* - Severe mitral stenosis often leads to significant **left atrial enlargement** and increased left atrial pressure, which are major predisposing factors for the development of atrial fibrillation. [1] - Atrial fibrillation further complicates mitral stenosis by reducing left ventricular filling and can lead to systemic embolization. [2] *Increase in the length of murmur* - A longer diastolic murmur in mitral stenosis indicates a longer duration of blood flow across the stenotic valve, which is characteristic of **more severe stenosis**. [1] - As the stenosis worsens, the pressure gradient across the mitral valve during diastole is sustained for a longer period.
Question 1644: A 55-year-old woman with metastatic lung cancer presents with dyspnea and pedal edema. On examination, the jugular venous pressure is 10 cm, with a negative Kussmaul's sign. The heart sounds are diminished, and the lungs have bibasilar crackles. The electrocardiogram shows QRS complexes of variable height. For the patient with shortness of breath and peripheral edema, select the most likely diagnosis.
- A. Cardiac tamponade (Correct Answer)
- B. Constrictive pericarditis
- C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
- D. Right ventricle myocardial infarction (RVMI)
Explanation: ***Cardiac tamponade*** - The combination of **dyspnea**, **pedal edema**, **elevated JVP** with a **negative Kussmaul's sign**, **diminished heart sounds**, and **electrical alternans** (QRS complexes of variable height) suggests cardiac tamponade [2]. - The patient's history of **metastatic lung cancer** increases the likelihood of **pericardial effusion**, which can lead to tamponade [2]. *Constrictive pericarditis* - This condition typically presents with a **positive Kussmaul's sign**, which is absent in this patient. - **Electrical alternans** is not a characteristic feature of constrictive pericarditis. *Restrictive cardiomyopathy* - While it can cause **dyspnea** and **edema**, it is not typically associated with **diminished heart sounds** or **electrical alternans**. - The primary defect is in **ventricular filling** due to myocardial stiffness, not external compression. *Right ventricle myocardial infarction (RVMI)* - RVMI causes right heart failure, leading to **elevated JVP** and **pedal edema**, but it does not cause **diminished heart sounds** or **electrical alternans** [1]. - It also usually presents with symptoms of **ischemia** and specific **ECG changes** (e.g., ST elevation in right precordial leads), which are not mentioned.
Question 1645: Ebstein's anomaly is associated with which of the following?
- A. Left atrial enlargement
- B. Right atrial enlargement (Correct Answer)
- C. Left ventricular enlargement
- D. Right ventricular enlargement
Explanation: ***Right atrial enlargement*** - Ebstein's anomaly involves the **apical displacement** of the tricuspid valve leaflets into the right ventricle, effectively "atrializing" a portion of the right ventricle. - This creates a functional right atrium that is much larger than normal, leading to significant **right atrial enlargement** [1]. *Left atrial enlargement* - **Left atrial enlargement** is typically associated with conditions affecting the mitral valve or left ventricular function, such as mitral stenosis [3], mitral regurgitation, or diastolic dysfunction. - Ebstein's anomaly primarily affects the right side of the heart, with left atrial size usually being normal or secondarily affected by right heart failure. *Left ventricular enlargement* - **Left ventricular enlargement** (hypertrophy or dilation) is associated with conditions like aortic stenosis, aortic regurgitation [2], hypertension, or ischemic cardiomyopathy. - Ebstein's anomaly does not directly cause left ventricular enlargement. *Right ventricular enlargement* - Although a portion of the right ventricle is functional, the overall **right ventricular cavity is often reduced** or dysfunctional due to the displacement of the tricuspid valve. - The primary morphological change is the atrialization of the right ventricle and subsequent right atrial enlargement, rather than an increase in the size of the functional right ventricle.
Question 1646: What is the threshold for defining a wide QRS duration?
- A. > 0.13 sec
- B. > 0.12 sec (Correct Answer)
- C. > 0.10 sec
- D. > 0.11 sec
Explanation: ***> 0.12 sec*** - A **QRS duration greater than 0.12 seconds** (or 120 milliseconds) is the standard definition for a wide QRS complex. - This indicates a delay in ventricular depolarization, often due to a **bundle branch block**, ventricular arrhythmia, or accessory pathway [1]. *< 0.13 sec* - While >0.13 seconds would also be considered wide, the precise threshold that defines a wide QRS duration is **> 0.12 seconds**. - This option is less precise than the universally accepted cutoff. *> 0.10 sec* - A QRS duration greater than 0.10 seconds but not exceeding 0.12 seconds is typically considered a **borderline wide QRS** or an **incomplete bundle branch block**, not a fully wide QRS complex. - It does not meet the established criteria for a definitively wide QRS. *> 0.11 sec* - Similar to >0.10 sec, a QRS duration greater than 0.11 seconds but not exceeding 0.12 seconds is considered **borderline wide** or suggestive of mild conduction delay. - It falls just shy of the standard definition for a truly wide QRS.
Question 1647: Which score is calculated during the exercise tolerance test for assessing chronic stable angina?
- A. Duke Score (Correct Answer)
- B. Bruce score
- C. Jones Score
- D. DeBakey Score
Explanation: ***Duke Score*** - The **Duke treadmill score** is a widely used prognostic tool in patients undergoing exercise stress testing for **chronic stable angina**, integrating exercise time, angina severity, and ST-segment deviation [1]. - It helps classify patients into **low, intermediate, or high-risk categories** for future cardiac events, guiding further management and diagnostic decisions [1]. *Bruce score* - The **Bruce protocol** is a common **treadmill exercise protocol** used for stress testing, where speed and incline are increased at 3-minute intervals [2]. - While it's the protocol used for the exercise, the derived **Bruce score** typically refers to the duration of exercise achieved, not a composite prognostic score like the Duke score [2]. *Jones Score* - The **Jones criteria** are primarily used for the diagnosis of **acute rheumatic fever**, based on major and minor manifestations. - This score is completely unrelated to cardiac stress testing or the assessment of angina. *DeBakey Score* - **DeBakey classification** is a system used to categorize **aortic dissections** based on their anatomical extent. - This score is relevant to aortic pathology and has no application in the context of exercise tolerance testing for stable angina.
Question 1648: Following are the risk factors of atherosclerosis, except?
- A. Diabetes
- B. Regular moderate exercise (Correct Answer)
- C. Obesity
- D. Hypertension
Explanation: ***Obesity*** - Obesity is considered a **modifiable risk factor** for atherosclerosis as it can be addressed through lifestyle changes like diet and exercise. [2] - It is associated with increased levels of **LDL cholesterol** and other metabolic disturbances that contribute to vascular disease. [5] *Hypertension* - Hypertension is also a **modifiable risk factor** and can be managed through medication and lifestyle changes. [4] - Elevated blood pressure contributes to **endothelial damage** and atherosclerosis progression. [1] *Diabetes* - Diabetes is a significant **modifiable risk factor** as it can worsen atherosclerosis through high blood sugar levels damaging blood vessels. [4] - Management of diabetes through diet, exercise, and medication can significantly reduce cardiovascular risk. [3] *Physical inactivity* - Physical inactivity is a **modifiable risk factor** as regular exercise can improve cardiovascular health and lower atherosclerosis risk. - Increased physical activity helps maintain a healthy weight and reduces **blood pressure** and blood sugar levels.
Question 1649: A 65-year-old woman with a history of atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) presents with palpitations lasting 4 hours. Her heart rate is 180 beats per minute, blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, and neck veins are distended. Auscultation reveals a carotid artery bruit, a loud S1, and a narrow split S2. Bilateral basal crepitations are noted on chest examination. Which of the following treatments is contraindicated for this patient?
- A. Face ice pack
- B. Adenosine
- C. Carotid sinus massage
- D. Verapamil (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Verapamil*** - Verapamil, a **non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker**, is contraindicated in patients with **wide-complex tachycardia**, especially if the origin is uncertain or suspected to be ventricular [2]. - Given the patient's **hypotension** and signs of **heart failure (distended neck veins, basal crepitations)**, verapamil could worsen her hemodynamic instability due to its negative inotropic and vasodilatory effects [1]. *Carotid sinus massage* - **Carotid sinus massage** can be attempted as a **vagal maneuver** to terminate supraventricular tachycardia (SVT), but it is contraindicated in patients with a **carotid bruit** due to the risk of dislodging an atherosclerotic plaque and causing a stroke [3]. - While typically a safe initial step for SVT, the presence of a carotid bruit in this patient raises concerns about underlying **carotid artery stenosis**, making this maneuver risky. *Face ice pack* - A **face-ice pack** is generally a safe and effective **vagal maneuver** for terminating stable supraventricular tachycardia (SVT), as it stimulates the diving reflex. - There are typically **no absolute contraindications** to its use in a hemodynamically unstable patient, but it may not be effective enough given the severity of the patient's symptoms. *Adenosine* - **Adenosine** is a treatment for **supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)**, although it should be used with caution in a hemodynamically unstable patient, particularly if there is doubt about the rhythm being true SVT. - While it can cause transient hypotension and bronchospasm, it is often a preferred treatment for SVT in unstable patients if the rhythm is clearly SVT and synchronized cardioversion is not immediately available or successful, as its effects are very short-lived.
Question 1650: What is the treatment for acute cardiac tamponade?
- A. Emergency thoracotomy
- B. IV fluids
- C. Emergency pericardiocentesis (Correct Answer)
- D. Pericardiotomy
Explanation: **Emergency pericardiocentesis** - **Emergent pericardiocentesis** is the definitive treatment for acute cardiac tamponade as it rapidly removes accumulated pericardial fluid, alleviating pressure on the heart [1]. - This procedure quickly restores cardiac filling and output, stabilizing the patient's hemodynamics [1]. *Emergency thoracotomy* - An **emergency thoracotomy** is a more invasive surgical procedure primarily used for severe chest trauma, such as massive hemorrhage or penetrating cardiac injuries. - While it can provide direct access to the heart, it is not the first-line treatment for acute cardiac tamponade where fluid drainage is the immediate priority. *Pericardiotomy* - **Pericardiotomy**, which involves surgically opening the pericardium, is typically performed in a more controlled operating room setting to treat chronic or recurrent pericardial effusions. - It is not a rapid, emergent procedure suitable for the acute, life-threatening nature of cardiac tamponade. *IV fluids* - While **IV fluids** might temporarily support blood pressure in patients with tamponade by increasing preload, they do not address the underlying problem of fluid compressing the heart. - Relying solely on IV fluids can delay definitive treatment and worsen the patient's condition by exacerbating the pericardial pressure.
Practice by Chapter
Coronary Artery Disease and Angina
Practice Questions
Acute Coronary Syndromes
Practice Questions
Heart Failure
Practice Questions
Cardiac Arrhythmias
Practice Questions
Valvular Heart Diseases
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Cardiomyopathies
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Pericardial Diseases
Practice Questions
Congenital Heart Disease in Adults
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Hypertension and Hypertensive Emergencies
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Pulmonary Hypertension
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Non-invasive Cardiac Diagnostics
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Preventive Cardiology
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