Diseases of the Pharynx Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for routine tonsillectomy?

Diphtheria carriers. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **C. Diphtheria carriers**. In clinical practice, being a diphtheria carrier is actually an **indication** for tonsillectomy, not a contraindication. If the carrier state persists despite adequate antibiotic therapy (Penicillin or Erythromycin), the tonsils act as a reservoir for *Corynebacterium diphtheriae*, and their surgical removal is necessary to eliminate the carrier state. **Analysis of Options:** * **Bleeding Disorders (Option B):** This is a **major contraindication**. Conditions like hemophilia, leukemia, or purpura pose a life-threatening risk of primary or reactionary hemorrhage during or after surgery. * **Cleft Palate (Option D):** This is a **relative contraindication**. The tonsils and adenoids help in velopharyngeal closure. Removing them in a patient with a cleft palate can lead to or worsen velopharyngeal insufficiency, resulting in hypernasal speech (rhinolalia aperta). * **Recurrent Upper Respiratory Tract Infections (Option A):** While chronic tonsillitis is an indication, surgery should **not** be performed during an **acute** infection. Tonsillectomy is contraindicated during an active URI or acute tonsillitis phase because the increased vascularity of the tissues significantly raises the risk of excessive intraoperative bleeding. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Absolute Indications:** Sleep apnea (OSAS), suspicion of malignancy (asymmetric tonsil), and recurrent peritonsillar abscess (Quinsy). * **Paradise Criteria:** Used to justify tonsillectomy for recurrent tonsillitis (7 episodes in 1 year, 5 per year for 2 years, or 3 per year for 3 years). * **Age Factor:** Usually avoided below 3 years of age due to the risk of blood loss and metabolic upset.

Q: A patient with nasopharyngeal carcinoma can present with the following, except?

Sensorineural hearing loss. **Explanation:** Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma (NPC) typically presents with a variety of symptoms due to its proximity to the skull base and Eustachian tube. **Why Sensorineural Hearing Loss (SNHL) is the correct answer:** NPC most commonly causes **Conductive Hearing Loss**, not SNHL. The tumor often originates in the Fossa of Rosenmüller, leading to the obstruction of the Eustachian tube orifice. This results in negative middle ear pressure and **Otitis Media with Effusion (OME)**. In an adult, unilateral serous otitis media is considered NPC until proven otherwise. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Horner’s Syndrome:** This occurs due to the involvement of the cervical sympathetic chain, typically when the tumor spreads to the parapharyngeal space or involves the apical lymph nodes (Level II/III). * **Epistaxis and Proptosis:** NPC is highly vascular; hence, epistaxis is a common early sign. Proptosis occurs when the tumor invades the orbit through the superior orbital fissure or the ethmoid sinuses. * **Trismus:** This indicates advanced local spread. It occurs due to the infiltration of the **pterygoid muscles** or involvement of the mandibular nerve (V3). **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** 1. **Trotter’s Triad:** A classic diagnostic triad for NPC consisting of: * Conductive hearing loss (Eustachian tube blockage) * Ipsilateral palatal paralysis (Levator veli palatini involvement) * Trigeminal neuralgia/Facial pain (V nerve involvement) 2. **Etiology:** Strongly associated with **Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)**. 3. **Most common symptom:** The most common presenting feature is actually a **painless cervical lymphadenopathy** (Upper deep cervical nodes). 4. **Treatment of Choice:** Radiotherapy is the primary treatment for NPC as it is highly radiosensitive.

Q: According to the WHO classification, to which category does undifferentiated carcinoma of the nasopharynx belong?

Type 3. ### Explanation The World Health Organization (WHO) classifies Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma (NPC) into three distinct histopathological types based on the degree of differentiation and keratinization. This classification is crucial for NEET-PG as it correlates with etiology (EBV association) and prognosis. **Why Type 3 is Correct:** **Type 3 (Undifferentiated Carcinoma)** is characterized by cells that show no evidence of keratinization under light microscopy. It often presents with a prominent lymphocytic infiltrate, historically referred to as **Schmincke’s tumor** or **lymphoepithelioma**. This type has the strongest association with **Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)**, is highly radiosensitive, and has a better prognosis compared to Type 1. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Type 1 (Squamous Cell Carcinoma):** This is the **keratinizing** variety. It is least associated with EBV and is more commonly linked to smoking and alcohol. It has the worst prognosis because it is less sensitive to radiotherapy. * **Type 2 (Non-keratinizing Squamous Cell Carcinoma):** This type shows cellular differentiation but lacks overt keratinization (no keratin pearls). It occupies an intermediate position between Type 1 and Type 3. * **Type 4:** There is no "Type 4" in the standard WHO classification for nasopharyngeal carcinoma. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most Common Site:** Fossa of Rosenmüller. * **Triad of Trotter:** Conductive hearing loss (due to ET blockage), Ipsilateral palatal palsy, and Trigeminal neuralgia (V2 involvement). * **EBV Markers:** Elevated titers of **IgA antibodies against Viral Capsid Antigen (VCA)** are used for screening and monitoring recurrence. * **Treatment of Choice:** Radiotherapy (NPC is highly radiosensitive). Surgery is reserved for salvage (neck nodes).

Q: A 10-year-old child presents with unilateral nasal obstruction, epistaxis, and swelling over the cheek. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Angiofibroma. **Explanation:** The clinical triad of **unilateral nasal obstruction, recurrent epistaxis, and facial swelling** in a young male child is a classic presentation of **Juvenile Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma (JNA)**. **1. Why Angiofibroma is Correct:** JNA is a benign but locally aggressive, highly vascular tumor that almost exclusively affects adolescent males (typically 10–20 years old). It originates near the sphenopalatine foramen. As the tumor grows, it expands into the pterygopalatine fossa, leading to the characteristic **cheek swelling** (Frog-face deformity in advanced stages). The vascular nature of the tumor explains the profuse, spontaneous epistaxis. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Nasal Polyp:** Usually presents with bilateral obstruction and watery discharge. While they can cause swelling (e.g., Ethmoidal polyps), they rarely cause significant epistaxis. * **Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma:** More common in older adults (bimodal peak) or associated with EBV. It typically presents with cervical lymphadenopathy and serous otitis media rather than acute cheek swelling in a child. * **Foreign Bodies:** Common in children and cause unilateral obstruction and malodorous/purulent discharge, but they do not cause facial swelling or massive epistaxis. **3. NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Holman-Miller Sign (Antral Sign):** Forward bowing of the posterior wall of the maxillary sinus seen on lateral X-ray or CT. * **Diagnosis:** Contrast-enhanced CT (CECT) is the investigation of choice. **Biopsy is contraindicated** due to the risk of life-threatening hemorrhage. * **Treatment:** Surgical excision (usually preceded by preoperative embolization to reduce blood loss). * **Origin:** Sphenopalatine foramen/Pterygopalatine fossa.

Q: What is the location of Killian dehiscence?

Between the inferior constrictor. **Explanation:** **Killian’s Dehiscence** is a weak triangular area in the posterior wall of the pharynx. It is located **between the two components of the inferior constrictor muscle**: 1. **Thyropharyngeus:** The upper oblique fibers. 2. **Cricopharyngeus:** The lower horizontal fibers (which act as the upper esophageal sphincter). The correct answer is **B** because this dehiscence represents a potential gap where the pharyngeal mucosa can herniate due to increased intrapharyngeal pressure, leading to the formation of a **Zenker’s Diverticulum** (Pulsion diverticulum). **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Option A:** The area below the superior constrictor (Sinus of Morgagni) is where the Eustachian tube and levator veli palatini enter; it is not the site of Killian’s dehiscence. * **Option C:** The area below the cricopharyngeus is known as **Killian-Jamieson area**. Herniation here results in a Killian-Jamieson diverticulum, which is lateral, not posterior. * **Option D:** The upper one-third of the esophagus consists of skeletal muscle, not smooth muscle. This anatomical landmark is unrelated to pharyngeal pouches. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Zenker’s Diverticulum:** Always emerges through Killian’s dehiscence. It is a **false diverticulum** (contains only mucosa and submucosa). * **Symptoms:** Dysphagia, regurgitation of undigested food, halitosis (foul breath), and a "gurgling" sound in the neck. * **Boyce’s Sign:** Swelling in the neck (usually left side) that gurgles on compression. * **Investigation of Choice:** Barium Swallow (shows a pouch behind the esophagus). * **Treatment:** Endoscopic Dohlman’s procedure (stapling) or open diverticulectomy with cricopharyngeal myotomy.

Q: Nasopharyngeal carcinoma does not involve which of the following structures?

Pyriform fossa. **Explanation:** Nasopharyngeal carcinoma (NPC) most commonly arises from the **Fossa of Rosenmüller**. Its spread is characterized by local infiltration along planes of least resistance and early lymphatic metastasis. **1. Why Pyriform Fossa is the Correct Answer:** The pyriform fossa is a part of the **hypopharynx**, located significantly inferior to the nasopharynx. NPC spreads via direct extension to adjacent structures or via the retropharyngeal and cervical lymph nodes. It does not typically skip the oropharynx and larynx to involve the hypopharynx (pyriform fossa) through direct local spread. Therefore, it is the least likely structure to be involved in the primary disease process. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Nasal Cavity:** NPC frequently spreads **anteriorly** through the choanae to involve the posterior nasal cavity, causing symptoms like nasal obstruction and epistaxis. * **Oropharynx:** NPC spreads **inferiorly** along the pharyngeal walls to involve the soft palate and the oropharynx. * **Orbit:** NPC can spread **superiorly** through the skull base (foramen lacerum or superior orbital fissure) or via the ethmoid sinuses to enter the orbit, leading to proptosis or ophthalmoplegia. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common histological type:** Undifferentiated carcinoma (WHO Type III), strongly associated with **Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)**. * **Trotter’s Triad:** Conductive deafness (Eustachian tube blockage), Palatal paralysis (CN X involvement), and Temporofacial neuralgia (CN V involvement). * **Nodal Spread:** The **Node of Rouviere** (lateral retropharyngeal node) is often the first to be involved. * **Treatment of Choice:** Radiotherapy is the primary treatment for both the primary tumor and the neck.

Q: A 10-year-old child presents with unilateral nasal obstruction, epistaxis, and swelling over the cheek. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Angiofibroma. ### Explanation The clinical triad of **unilateral nasal obstruction**, **recurrent epistaxis**, and **facial swelling** in a young male is a classic presentation of **Juvenile Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma (JNA)**. **1. Why Angiofibroma is Correct:** JNA is a benign but locally aggressive, highly vascular tumor that typically arises from the sphenopalatine foramen. It occurs almost exclusively in adolescent males (median age 10–14 years). * **Epistaxis:** Occurs due to the tumor's extreme vascularity. * **Nasal Obstruction:** Caused by the mass filling the nasopharynx. * **Cheek Swelling:** Indicates extension into the pterygopalatine fossa and infratemporal fossa (Holman-Miller sign/Antral sign on imaging). **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Nasal Polyp:** Usually presents with bilateral obstruction and watery rhinorrhea. While it can cause swelling (e.g., Ethmoidal polyp), it rarely causes significant epistaxis. * **Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma:** More common in adults (bimodal peak) and often presents with cervical lymphadenopathy and serous otitis media. While it can cause obstruction, the age and classic vascular symptoms point more strongly toward JNA. * **Foreign Bodies:** Typically present with unilateral, **foul-smelling, purulent** nasal discharge in younger children (2–5 years). While they can cause minor bleeding, they do not cause cheek swelling. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Gold Standard Investigation:** Contrast-Enhanced CT (CECT) or MRI. * **Holman-Miller Sign:** Anterior bowing of the posterior wall of the maxillary antrum on CT (Pathognomonic). * **Contraindication:** **Biopsy is strictly contraindicated** in the OPD due to the risk of torrential, life-threatening hemorrhage. * **Treatment of Choice:** Surgical excision (usually preceded by preoperative embolization to reduce blood loss).

Q: A 14-year-old boy presents with a history of frequent nasal bleeding. His Hb was found to be 6.4 g/dL and peripheral smear showed normocytic hypochromic anemia. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma. **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of a **14-year-old male** with **frequent, profuse nasal bleeding (epistaxis)** leading to significant **secondary anemia** (Hb 6.4 g/dL) is a classic "textbook" description of **Juvenile Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma (JNA)**. **1. Why JNA is the correct answer:** JNA is a benign but locally aggressive, highly vascular tumor that occurs almost exclusively in **adolescent males**. It typically originates in the sphenopalatine foramen. The hallmark symptom is spontaneous, painless, and recurrent profuse epistaxis. The severity of bleeding often leads to chronic iron-deficiency anemia (normocytic hypochromic), as seen in this patient. **2. Why other options are incorrect:** * **Hemangioma:** While vascular, they usually present as smaller, localized lesions on the nasal septum (Little’s area) and rarely cause anemia this severe in an adolescent. * **Antrochoanal polyp:** These present primarily with unilateral nasal obstruction. While they may cause minor mucoid discharge, they do not cause profuse bleeding or systemic anemia. * **Carcinoma of nasopharynx:** While it can cause bleeding, it is rare in this age group and typically presents with a neck mass (level II nodes), hearing loss (serous otitis media), or cranial nerve palsies. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Holman-Miller Sign:** Anterior bowing of the posterior wall of the maxillary sinus seen on CT (pathognomonic). * **Diagnosis:** Biopsy is **contraindicated** due to the risk of fatal hemorrhage. Diagnosis is clinical and radiological (Contrast CT/MRI). * **Blood Supply:** Most commonly the **Internal Maxillary Artery** (branch of External Carotid). * **Treatment of Choice:** Surgical excision (usually preceded by preoperative embolization to reduce blood loss).

Question 1

Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for routine tonsillectomy?

Accepted Answer

Diphtheria carriers

Answer

Recurrent upper respiratory tract infections

Answer

Bleeding disorder

Answer

Cleft palate

Question 2

A patient with nasopharyngeal carcinoma can present with the following, except?

Accepted Answer

Sensorineural hearing loss

Answer

Horner's syndrome

Answer

Epistaxis and proptosis

Answer

Trismus

Question 3

According to the WHO classification, to which category does undifferentiated carcinoma of the nasopharynx belong?

Accepted Answer

Type 3

Answer

Type 1

Answer

Type 2

Answer

Type 4

Question 4

A 10-year-old child presents with unilateral nasal obstruction, epistaxis, and swelling over the cheek. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Angiofibroma

Answer

Nasal polyp

Answer

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

Answer

Foreign bodies

Question 5

What is the location of Killian dehiscence?

Accepted Answer

Between the inferior constrictor

Answer

Below the superior constrictor

Answer

Below the cricopharyngeal muscle

Answer

Below the upper one-third of the smooth muscle of the esophagus

Question 6

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma does not involve which of the following structures?

Accepted Answer

Pyriform fossa

Answer

Nasal cavity

Answer

Oropharynx

Answer

Orbit

Question 7

A 10-year-old child presents with unilateral nasal obstruction, epistaxis, and swelling over the cheek. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Angiofibroma

Answer

Nasal polyp

Answer

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

Answer

Foreign bodies

Question 8

What is true about juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma?

Accepted Answer

Increased incidence in females.

Answer

Hormones are not used in treatment.

Answer

Surgery is the treatment of choice.

Answer

It is a malignant tumor.

Question 9

A 14-year-old boy presents with a history of frequent nasal bleeding. His Hb was found to be 6.4 g/dL and peripheral smear showed normocytic hypochromic anemia. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

Answer

Hemangioma

Answer

Antrochoanal polyp

Answer

Carcinoma of nasopharynx

Question 10

Trismus associated with infection of the lateral pharyngeal space is related to the irritation of which muscle?

Accepted Answer

Medial pterygoid

Answer

Buccinator

Answer

Masseter

Answer

Lateral pterygoid

Diseases of the Pharynx — MCQs

Diseases of the Pharynx — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?