Skin Tumors Practice Questions

Q: Buschke Lowenstein tumor is described as:

Verrucous carcinoma of the penis. **Explanation:** **Buschke-Lowenstein Tumor (BLT)**, also known as **Giant Condyloma Acuminatum**, is a rare, slow-growing, cauliflower-like growth typically found in the anogenital region. It is classified as a **Verrucous Carcinoma**, which is a low-grade, well-differentiated variant of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC). 1. **Why Option D is Correct:** BLT is histologically benign-looking but clinically malignant. It is characterized by local invasion, massive size, and a high rate of recurrence. While it rarely metastasizes, it causes extensive local tissue destruction. It is strongly associated with **Human Papillomavirus (HPV) types 6 and 11**. 2. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Option A (Condyloma lata):** These are flat, moist, wart-like lesions seen in **Secondary Syphilis** (caused by *Treponema pallidum*), not a tumorous growth. * **Option B (Molluscum contagiosum):** These are small, pearly, umbilicated papules caused by the **Poxvirus**. They do not exhibit the massive, invasive growth seen in BLT. * **Option C (Benign lesion):** Although BLT starts from a viral wart (Condyloma acuminatum), it is considered a **locally invasive carcinoma**. Labeling it purely "benign" is incorrect because of its destructive nature and potential for malignant transformation into frank SCC. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Classic Appearance:** "Cauliflower-like" mass in the perianal or penile region. * **Histology:** Shows "pushing" borders rather than the "infiltrative" borders seen in typical SCC. * **Treatment of Choice:** Wide local surgical excision. * **Key Association:** HPV 6 and 11 (low-risk types), though it behaves aggressively.

Q: All of the following are true about Xeroderma pigmentosum except?

Autosomal dominant inheritance.. **Explanation:** **Xeroderma Pigmentosum (XP)** is a rare genodermatosis characterized by extreme photosensitivity and a high predisposition to skin malignancies. **1. Why Option D is the Correct Answer:** Xeroderma pigmentosum is inherited in an **Autosomal Recessive** pattern, not autosomal dominant. It involves mutations in genes (XPA through XPG) responsible for the **Nucleotide Excision Repair (NER)** pathway. This pathway is essential for repairing DNA damage (specifically pyrimidine dimers) caused by Ultraviolet (UV) radiation. **2. Analysis of Other Options:** * **Option A (Skin manifestations in first 2 years):** This is a true statement. Children with XP typically present early with severe sunburn after minimal sun exposure and the development of diffuse freckle-like hyperpigmentation (lentigines) in sun-exposed areas before age 2. * **Option B (Increased risk of non-melanotic skin cancers):** This is true. Due to the inability to repair UV-induced DNA damage, there is a >1000-fold increased risk of **Basal Cell Carcinoma (BCC)** and **Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC)**. There is also a significantly increased risk of Malignant Melanoma. * **Option C (Nucleotide excision repair defect):** This is the fundamental biochemical hallmark of the disease. The NER mechanism fails to excise bulky DNA adducts formed by UV light. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Ocular involvement:** Photophobia, keratitis, and corneal opacities are common. * **Neurological features:** Some variants (e.g., **De Sanctis-Cacchione syndrome**) present with microcephaly, intellectual disability, and ataxia. * **Diagnosis:** Suggested by clinical features and confirmed by functional assays for DNA repair or genetic testing. * **Management:** Strict UV protection (sunscreen, protective clothing) and regular dermatological surveillance are the mainstays of treatment.

Q: Birt-Hogg-Dube syndrome is associated with which of the following?

Renal cell carcinoma. **Explanation:** **Birt-Hogg-Dubé (BHD) syndrome** is a rare autosomal dominant genodermatosis caused by a mutation in the **FLCN gene**, which encodes the protein **folliculin**. It is characterized by a triad of cutaneous, pulmonary, and renal manifestations. 1. **Why Renal Cell Carcinoma is correct:** Patients with BHD have a significantly increased risk (up to 7-fold) of developing renal tumors. The most characteristic histological subtype is the **chromophobe renal cell carcinoma** or **oncocytoma** (often hybrid tumors), though clear cell and papillary types can also occur. These tumors are frequently bilateral and multifocal. 2. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Lung carcinoma:** While BHD is strongly associated with the lungs, it causes **pulmonary cysts** and **spontaneous pneumothorax**, not lung carcinoma. * **Stomach/Ovarian carcinoma:** There is no established or statistically significant association between BHD syndrome and gastric or ovarian malignancies. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Cutaneous Triad:** Look for **Fibrofolliculomas** (most common/pathognomonic), Trichodiscomas, and Acrochordons (skin tags) appearing after puberty on the face and neck. * **Genetics:** Mutation in the **FLCN gene** on chromosome **17p11.2**. * **Pulmonary:** Multiple thin-walled lung cysts, typically in the basal lobes, leading to recurrent spontaneous pneumothorax. * **Radiology:** CT scans are used for surveillance of renal masses and identifying basal lung cysts.

Q: A 75-year-old woman presented with an enlarging lesion on the upper back of 3 years' duration. She had multiple co-morbidities. On examination, there was a 4-cm diameter erythematous, shiny plaque. A punch biopsy showed superficial basal cell carcinoma. It was decided to treat her with imiquimod. What is the recommended treatment regimen?

5 times per week for 6 weeks. **Explanation:** The patient presents with a **superficial Basal Cell Carcinoma (sBCC)**. While surgical excision is the gold standard for BCC, topical therapy with **Imiquimod 5% cream** is an FDA-approved, effective alternative for patients with small, superficial lesions or those who are poor surgical candidates due to advanced age and comorbidities. **1. Why Option B is Correct:** The standard, evidence-based regimen for treating superficial BCC with Imiquimod 5% is application **5 times per week for a duration of 6 weeks**. This schedule balances efficacy (achieving clearance rates of approximately 80-90%) with manageable local inflammatory side effects (erythema, crusting, and erosions), which are actually markers of the drug's immune-stimulating activity. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Option A (3 times/week for 8 weeks):** This is the standard regimen for **Anogenital Warts**, not sBCC. * **Option C & D:** These regimens are either too infrequent or too short to achieve the necessary histological clearance for a malignant lesion like BCC. Using sub-therapeutic durations increases the risk of recurrence. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Mechanism of Action:** Imiquimod is an **immune response modifier**. It acts as an agonist at **Toll-like receptor 7 (TLR-7)**, stimulating the release of cytokines (IFN-α, TNF-α, IL-12) and activating cell-mediated immunity. * **Indications:** Superficial BCC, Actinic Keratosis (3x/week), and External Genital Warts. * **Contraindication:** It is generally avoided in "high-risk" BCC subtypes (morpheaform, infiltrating) or lesions in "H-zone" areas of the face where surgery is mandatory. * **Expected Reaction:** Patients should be warned that the lesion will look "worse" (red, inflamed) before it gets better; this indicates the medication is working.

Q: A 56-year-old man presents with a history of a small lump on his finger for some months, which has recently started leaking after an injury sustained while working in the garage. What is the single most likely diagnosis?

Myxoid cyst. **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of a small, long-standing lump on the finger that leaks fluid—especially after minor trauma—is classic for a **Myxoid cyst** (also known as a digital mucous cyst). **Why Myxoid Cyst is correct:** These are benign ganglion cysts typically located on the dorsum of the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint or the proximal nail fold. They contain a clear, viscous, jelly-like fluid (hyaluronic acid). A hallmark feature is that they frequently rupture or leak a "clear, sticky fluid" following minor injury, which aligns perfectly with the patient's history of leakage after working in the garage. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Keratoacanthoma:** This is a rapidly growing, dome-shaped nodule with a central keratinous plug. It does not typically leak fluid; it is a solid, firm lesion that may undergo spontaneous regression. * **Pyogenic granuloma:** These are vascular lesions that occur after minor trauma. However, they are characterized by bright red, friable tissue that **bleeds profusely** rather than leaking clear fluid. * **Sebaceous cyst:** These are rare on the fingers because fingers lack sebaceous glands (except for the dorsal aspect, but even then, they are uncommon). They contain cheesy keratin and usually have a visible punctum. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Association:** Myxoid cysts are frequently associated with **osteoarthritis** of the DIP joint (Heberden's nodes). * **Nail Changes:** If the cyst presses on the nail matrix, it can cause a characteristic **longitudinal groove** in the fingernail. * **Management:** Simple aspiration has a high recurrence rate; definitive treatment often requires excision of the cyst and the underlying osteophyte.

Q: The ABCDE principle is used for assessing which type of skin malignancy?

Malignant melanoma. **Explanation:** The **ABCDE principle** is a clinical mnemonic used for the early detection and screening of **Malignant Melanoma**, the most aggressive form of skin cancer. Since early diagnosis is critical for survival, this rule helps clinicians and patients differentiate a benign nevus (mole) from a potential melanoma. The mnemonic stands for: * **A – Asymmetry:** One half of the lesion does not match the other. * **B – Border:** Irregular, notched, or blurred edges. * **C – Color:** Variegated shades (brown, black, tan, red, or blue) within the same lesion. * **D – Diameter:** Usually >6 mm (though smaller melanomas exist). * **E – Evolving:** Any change in size, shape, color, or new symptoms like itching/bleeding. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Basal Cell Carcinoma (BCC):** The most common skin cancer; typically presents as a pearly papule with telangiectasia and a central "rodent ulcer." It does not follow the ABCDE pattern. * **Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC):** Often arises from actinic keratosis and presents as a firm, erythematous, scaly plaque or ulcerated nodule. * **Verrucous Carcinoma:** A low-grade variant of SCC that appears as a slow-growing, cauliflower-like (warty) mass, commonly found in the oral cavity or on the sole of the foot (epithelioma cuniculatum). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Breslow’s Depth:** The most important prognostic factor for melanoma (measures vertical thickness). * **Ugly Duckling Sign:** A lesion that looks different from all other moles on a patient’s body is highly suspicious for melanoma. * **Commonest Site:** In fair-skinned individuals, it is the back (males) and lower legs (females). In Asians, **Acral Lentiginous Melanoma** (palms, soles, nails) is the most common subtype.

Q: A 43-year-old female presents with pigmentation on the neck, axilla, and other flexures. She has had diabetes for several years, which is not well-controlled. She is concerned about the possibility of skin cancer. Which of the following is NOT a premalignant condition?

Acanthosis nigricans. ### Explanation The correct answer is **B. Acanthosis nigricans**. **1. Why Acanthosis Nigricans is the correct answer:** Acanthosis nigricans (AN) is a **benign** cutaneous marker characterized by hyperpigmented, velvety plaques in intertriginous areas (neck, axilla). In this patient, it is associated with **insulin resistance** (Type 2 Diabetes), where high insulin levels cross-react with IGF-1 receptors on keratinocytes and fibroblasts, causing hyperplasia. While AN can occasionally be a paraneoplastic sign of internal malignancy (typically gastric adenocarcinoma), the skin lesion itself is **not premalignant**—it does not transform into skin cancer. **2. Why the other options are wrong (Premalignant conditions):** * **Solar (Actinic) Keratosis:** The most common premalignant skin lesion. It is caused by UV damage and can progress to **Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC)**. * **Bowen’s Disease:** This is **SCC in-situ**. It involves the full thickness of the epidermis but has not yet breached the dermo-epidermal junction. It is, by definition, a pre-invasive malignancy. * **Porokeratosis:** A disorder of keratinization characterized by a "cornoid lamella" on histology. All clinical variants (especially the linear type) have a risk of malignant transformation into SCC or BCC. **3. NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Tripe Palms:** A variant of AN involving the palms, highly suggestive of internal malignancy (Lung or Gastric CA). * **Sign of Leser-Trélat:** Sudden eruption of multiple seborrheic keratoses; another important paraneoplastic marker. * **Erythroplasia of Queyrat:** Bowen’s disease occurring on the glans penis. * **Mnemonic for Premalignant Lesions:** "S-B-P" (Solar Keratosis, Bowen’s, Porokeratosis) + Xeroderma Pigmentosum and PUVA therapy scars.

Q: Which of the following is true regarding basal cell carcinomas?

Common on the face and neck.. **Explanation:** Basal Cell Carcinoma (BCC) is the most common skin cancer worldwide. It arises from the non-keratinizing cells of the basal layer of the epidermis. **1. Why Option B is Correct:** BCC is primarily driven by cumulative exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation. Consequently, about **80-90% of cases occur on sun-exposed areas**, specifically the **face and neck**. The most common site is the nose. A classic clinical feature is the "pearly papule" with telangiectasia and a rolled-out border. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Option A:** BCC is characterized by slow growth and local invasion (hence the name "Rodent Ulcer"), but it **rarely metastasizes** (incidence <0.1%). Metastasis, when it occurs, is usually to regional lymph nodes. * **Option C:** BCC is actually **more common in males** than females, likely due to higher cumulative occupational and recreational sun exposure. * **Option D:** BCC is **radiosensitive**. While surgical excision (Mohs Micrographic Surgery) is the gold standard, radiotherapy is an effective primary treatment for patients who are not surgical candidates or for tumors in difficult anatomical locations. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Mohs Micrographic Surgery:** The treatment of choice for high-risk BCC (recurrent tumors or those on the "H-zone" of the face) as it offers the highest cure rate and maximum tissue conservation. * **Gorlin Syndrome (Basal Cell Nevus Syndrome):** An autosomal dominant condition (PTCH1 gene mutation) characterized by multiple BCCs at a young age, odontogenic keratocysts, and bifid ribs. * **Hedgehog Signaling Pathway:** Mutations in the *PTCH* or *SMO* genes are central to BCC pathogenesis. **Vismodegib** is a targeted SMO inhibitor used for metastatic or locally advanced BCC.

Q: What is the commonest site of melanoma on the orofacial skin?

Malar region. **Explanation:** The **malar region** (cheeks) is the most common site for primary cutaneous melanoma on the orofacial skin. This is primarily because facial melanomas are frequently of the **Lentigo Maligna Melanoma (LMM)** subtype, which occurs on chronically sun-damaged skin in elderly individuals. The malar area receives significant cumulative ultraviolet (UV) radiation, making it a hotspot for melanocytic proliferation. **Analysis of Options:** * **Malar Region (Correct):** High UV exposure and a large surface area make this the predominant site for facial melanomas, particularly the Lentigo Maligna type. * **Upper Lip (Incorrect):** While melanoma can occur here, it is statistically less common than the malar region. Interestingly, in the context of non-melanoma skin cancers, Basal Cell Carcinoma (BCC) is more common on the upper lip. * **Lower Lip (Incorrect):** The lower lip is a classic site for **Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC)** due to direct vertical sun exposure, but primary cutaneous melanoma is rare here. * **Forehead (Incorrect):** Although a sun-exposed site, the incidence of melanoma on the forehead is lower than on the cheeks/malar prominence. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Lentigo Maligna (Hutchinson’s Melanotic Freckle):** This is the pre-invasive (in situ) stage of LMM, commonly seen on the faces of the elderly. * **ABCDE Criteria:** Used for clinical diagnosis (Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variegation, Diameter >6mm, Evolving). * **Prognostic Factor:** The most important prognostic factor for cutaneous melanoma is **Breslow’s Depth** (vertical thickness in mm). * **Mucosal Melanoma:** If the question refers to the *oral cavity* (not orofacial skin), the **hard palate** and **maxillary gingiva** are the most common sites.

Question 1

Buschke Lowenstein tumor is described as:

Accepted Answer

Verrucous carcinoma of the penis

Answer

Condyloma lata

Answer

Molluscum contagiosum

Answer

A benign lesion of the penis

Question 2

All of the following are true about Xeroderma pigmentosum except?

Accepted Answer

Autosomal dominant inheritance.

Answer

Skin manifestations appear within the first 2 years of life.

Answer

Increased risk of non-melanotic skin cancers.

Answer

Nucleotide excision repair defect.

Question 3

Birt-Hogg-Dube syndrome is associated with which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Renal cell carcinoma

Answer

Lung carcinoma

Answer

Stomach carcinoma

Answer

Ovarian carcinoma

Question 4

A 75-year-old woman presented with an enlarging lesion on the upper back of 3 years' duration. She had multiple co-morbidities. On examination, there was a 4-cm diameter erythematous, shiny plaque. A punch biopsy showed superficial basal cell carcinoma. It was decided to treat her with imiquimod. What is the recommended treatment regimen?

Accepted Answer

5 times per week for 6 weeks

Answer

3 times per week for 8 weeks

Answer

Alternate days for 4 weeks

Answer

Daily for 3 weeks

Question 5

A 56-year-old man presents with a history of a small lump on his finger for some months, which has recently started leaking after an injury sustained while working in the garage. What is the single most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Myxoid cyst

Answer

Keratoacanthoma

Answer

Pyogenic granuloma

Answer

Sebaceous cyst

Question 6

The ABCDE principle is used for assessing which type of skin malignancy?

Accepted Answer

Malignant melanoma

Answer

Squamous cell carcinoma

Answer

Basal cell carcinoma

Answer

Verrucous carcinoma

Question 7

A 43-year-old female presents with pigmentation on the neck, axilla, and other flexures. She has had diabetes for several years, which is not well-controlled. She is concerned about the possibility of skin cancer. Which of the following is NOT a premalignant condition?

Accepted Answer

Acanthosis nigricans

Answer

Solar keratosis

Answer

Bowen's disease

Answer

Porokeratosis

Question 8

Which of the following is true regarding basal cell carcinomas?

Accepted Answer

Common on the face and neck.

Answer

Usually metastasize to regional lymph nodes.

Answer

Common in females.

Answer

Radio resistant.

Question 9

What is the commonest site of melanoma on the orofacial skin?

Accepted Answer

Malar region

Answer

Lower lip

Answer

Forehead

Answer

Upper lip

Question 10

Spontaneous regression is seen in all of the following conditions except?

Accepted Answer

Strawberry angioma

Answer

Salmon patch

Answer

Small cavernous hemangioma

Answer

Portwine stain

Skin Tumors — MCQs

Skin Tumors — MCQs

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