Infectious Diseases — MCQs

Infectious Diseases Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 241: Which one of the following is NOT a contagious disease?

A. Malaria (Correct Answer)
B. Trachoma
C. Leprosy
D. Scabies

Explanation: ***Malaria*** - Malaria is caused by **Plasmodium parasites** transmitted through the bite of infected Anopheles mosquitoes. It is not spread directly from person to person. - Transmission requires a **vector** (mosquito), making it a non-contagious infectious disease. *Trachoma* - Trachoma is a contagious bacterial infection caused by **Chlamydia trachomatis**, spread through direct contact with eye and nose discharge of an infected person. - It can also be transmitted via **fomites** like contaminated towels or clothing, or through eye-seeking flies. *Leprosy* - Leprosy, caused by **Mycobacterium leprae**, is a chronic infectious disease that is considered contagious, although with low infectivity. - It is primarily transmitted through **nasal droplets** during close and prolonged contact with an untreated infected person. *Scabies* - Scabies is a contagious skin infestation caused by the **mite Sarcoptes scabiei**, which burrows into the outer layer of the skin. - It is easily spread through **direct, prolonged skin-to-skin contact** with an infected person.

Question 242: Which of the following statements about screening for chlamydia and gonorrhea is MOST accurate?

A. Screening is not cost-effective and should be avoided in low-risk populations
B. Screening is recommended for sexually active women under 25, men who have sex with men, and pregnant women (Correct Answer)
C. Screening is only recommended for patients with symptoms
D. Annual screening is recommended for all sexually active adults regardless of age or risk factors

Explanation: ***Screening is recommended for sexually active women under 25, men who have sex with men, and pregnant women*** - This statement aligns with current **CDC guidelines** which prioritize screening in populations with a higher prevalence or increased risk of complications from chlamydia and gonorrhea. - Early detection and treatment in these groups can prevent serious long-term health consequences like **pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)**, **infertility**, and **adverse pregnancy outcomes**. *Screening is not cost-effective and should be avoided in low-risk populations* - While screening in genuinely low-risk populations might be less cost-effective, chlamydia and gonorrhea often have **asymptomatic presentations**, making targeted screening essential for disease control. - The long-term costs associated with untreated infections (e.g., infertility treatment, chronic pain) often outweigh the costs of screening, even in lower-prevalence settings, when focused on at-risk groups. *Screening is only recommended for patients with symptoms* - This statement is incorrect because a significant proportion of chlamydia and gonorrhea infections are **asymptomatic**, meaning individuals can be infected and transmit the infection without showing any symptoms. - Relying only on symptoms would lead to widespread **undetected infections** and continued transmission within communities. *Annual screening is recommended for all sexually active adults regardless of age or risk factors* - While broad screening might seem comprehensive, current guidelines emphasize **targeted screening** based on age, sexual history, and risk factors to optimize resource allocation and maximize public health impact. - Overly broad screening in genuinely low-risk older populations may not be the most **cost-effective strategy**.

Question 243: How does the presence of STIs increase the risk of HIV transmission?

A. By direct enhancement of HIV replication
B. By increasing CD4 receptor density on target cells
C. By inhibiting cytotoxic T-cell responses
D. By disrupting mucosal barriers and causing inflammation (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***By disrupting mucosal barriers and causing inflammation*** - Many STIs, particularly those causing **genital ulcers** (e.g., herpes, syphilis) or inflammation (e.g., gonorrhea, chlamydia), disrupt the integrity of the **mucosal barriers** in the genital tract. This provides easier entry points for HIV, as the epithelial cells act as a physical barrier. - The inflammatory response triggered by STIs leads to the recruitment of **HIV target cells** (CD4+ T-cells and macrophages) to the site of infection, increasing their concentration in genital secretions and making them more accessible to HIV during exposure. *By direct enhancement of HIV replication* - While some inflammatory cytokines can enhance HIV replication in vitro, this is not the primary or most significant mechanism by which STIs increase transmission risk in vivo. - The main mechanism involves increased exposure to target cells and disrupted barriers rather than direct viral replication enhancement. *By increasing CD4 receptor density on target cells* - STIs do not demonstrably increase the density of **CD4 receptors** on the surface of individual target cells. - Instead, they increase the *number* of available CD4+ target cells at the site of exposure due to inflammation and immune cell infiltration. *By inhibiting cytotoxic T-cell responses* - Some STIs might have localized immunosuppressive effects, but their primary contribution to increased HIV transmission risk is not through a generalized inhibition of **cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) responses**. - The key mechanisms are related to physical barriers and increased target cell availability, not suppression of the systemic antiviral immune response.

Question 244: A 22-year-old woman presents for STI screening. She reports multiple sexual partners and inconsistent condom use. What screening tests would be most appropriate?

A. HPV DNA testing only
B. Complete blood count and urinalysis
C. HIV and syphilis testing only
D. HIV, syphilis, gonorrhea, and chlamydia testing (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***HIV, syphilis, gonorrhea, and chlamydia testing*** - This comprehensive panel screens for the most common bacterial and viral STIs in sexually active individuals with **multiple partners** and **inconsistent condom use**, as recommended by **NACO and WHO guidelines**. - **Gonorrhea and chlamydia** often present asymptomatically but can lead to serious reproductive health complications including pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and infertility if untreated. - In high-risk populations, comprehensive screening is essential for early detection and prevention of transmission. *HPV DNA testing only* - **HPV DNA testing** is primarily for cervical cancer screening in women over 30 years or as a co-test with cytology; it doesn't cover other STIs. - While HPV is common, testing for other prevalent STIs like chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis, and HIV is crucial given her risk factors. *Complete blood count and urinalysis* - A **complete blood count (CBC)** assesses overall health and detects conditions like anemia or infection but is not a specific STI screening test. - **Urinalysis** checks for urinary tract infections or kidney issues and does not directly screen for STIs. - These are general screening tests and miss the targeted STI screening needed. *HIV and syphilis testing only* - Although **HIV and syphilis testing** are essential components of STI screening, this option misses other common and treatable bacterial STIs like gonorrhea and chlamydia. - Given the patient's risk factors (multiple partners, inconsistent condom use), a more comprehensive screening panel is warranted to prevent long-term reproductive complications.

Question 245: How does trichomoniasis affect HIV transmission?

A. By increasing HIV viral shedding from genital tract (Correct Answer)
B. By selection for drug-resistant HIV strains
C. By direct activation of HIV transcription
D. By inhibiting host macrophage function

Explanation: ***By increasing HIV viral shedding from genital tract*** - **Trichomoniasis** causes inflammation and disruption of the **genital mucosal barrier**, leading to an increased concentration of HIV in genital secretions. - This elevated **viral load** in the genital tract directly increases the likelihood of HIV transmission during sexual contact. *By selection for drug-resistant HIV strains* - This mechanism is not directly associated with **trichomoniasis**; drug resistance typically develops due to suboptimal adherence to antiretroviral therapy (ART) or drug mutations. - **Trichomoniasis** does not exert selective pressure on HIV to develop drug resistance. *By direct activation of HIV transcription* - While other co-infections can activate immune cells and enhance HIV replication, the primary mechanism of **trichomoniasis** enhancing HIV transmission is through increased shedding, rather than direct transcriptional activation. - **Trichomoniasis**-induced inflammation creates a fertile environment for immune cells, which in turn can become targets for HIV, but direct transcription activation is not its main role. *By inhibiting host macrophage function* - **Trichomoniasis** is primarily associated with immune system activation and inflammation, rather than significant inhibition of **macrophage function**. - Impaired macrophage function would more likely decrease, rather than increase, viral dissemination or immune response.

Question 246: Why is syndromic management of STIs particularly important in resource-limited settings?

A. It's more cost-effective than targeted therapy
B. It prevents emergence of drug resistance
C. It's more effective than etiologic diagnosis
D. It allows treatment without waiting for laboratory confirmation (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***It allows treatment without waiting for laboratory confirmation*** - **Syndromic management** enables immediate treatment based on clinical symptoms, which is crucial in settings where laboratory tests are **unavailable or delayed**. - This approach helps to **interrupt transmission** and prevent complications quickly, even without a definitive diagnosis. *It's more cost-effective than targeted therapy* - While syndromic management can be more cost-effective than extensive laboratory testing, its primary importance in resource-limited settings is not solely about cost but about **accessibility and timeliness of treatment**. - **Over-treatment with multiple drugs** can sometimes increase overall drug costs, but the benefit of prompt treatment often outweighs this. *It prevents emergence of drug resistance* - Syndromic management often involves the use of **broad-spectrum antibiotics** or multiple drugs, which can actually contribute to the **emergence of drug resistance** if not appropriate for the specific pathogen. - Preventing drug resistance is primarily addressed through **appropriate drug selection** and adherence to treatment guidelines, not inherently by the syndromic approach itself. *It's more effective than etiologic diagnosis* - **Etiologic diagnosis** (identifying the specific pathogen) is considered the gold standard for STI management as it allows for **targeted therapy** and better pathogen-specific treatment. - Syndromic management is a pragmatic approach used when etiologic diagnosis is not feasible, making it a **practical alternative**, not necessarily more effective.

Question 247: Which of the following factors does NOT increase the risk of acquiring gonorrhea?

A. Multiple sexual partners
B. Use of barrier contraceptives (Correct Answer)
C. Previous history of gonorrhea
D. Young age (15-24 years)

Explanation: ***Use of barrier contraceptives*** - **Barrier contraceptives**, such as **condoms**, work by physically preventing the exchange of bodily fluids and microorganisms during sexual activity. - Consistent and correct use of barrier contraceptives significantly **reduces the risk** of acquiring sexually transmitted infections (STIs), including gonorrhea. *Multiple sexual partners* - Engaging in sexual activity with **multiple partners** increases the likelihood of encountering an infected individual, thereby elevating the risk of gonorrhea transmission. - A higher number of partners inherently increases exposure to the **prevalence of STIs** within a population. *Previous history of gonorrhea* - A **previous infection** with gonorrhea does **not confer immunity**; individuals can be reinfected multiple times. - A history of gonorrhea may indicate a higher-risk sexual health profile or practices, making future infections more likely if behaviors do not change. *Young age (15-24 years)* - Individuals in this age group are at a **higher risk** for gonorrhea due to a combination of factors, including biological susceptibility, common sexual behaviors, and a lower likelihood of consistent condom use. - **Immature cervical biology** in younger women makes them more susceptible to infection, and this group often engages in more frequent partner changes.

Question 248: Identify the character shown in the image:

A. Arohi from HIV
B. Meena from UNICEF
C. None of the options
D. Sapna from Leprosy campaign (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Sapna from Leprosy campaign*** - The image depicts Sapna, a character created for the **National Leprosy Eradication Programme (NLEP)** in India. - This character was developed as part of public health campaigns to spread awareness about leprosy and reduce stigma associated with the disease. - Sapna has been widely used in educational materials and community outreach programs for leprosy awareness. *Arohi from HIV* - Arohi is a different character associated with awareness campaigns for **HIV/AIDS**, not leprosy. - She is part of distinct public health initiatives focusing on HIV prevention, treatment, and stigma reduction under the National AIDS Control Programme. *Meena from UNICEF* - Meena is a prominent animated character created by **UNICEF** to advocate for children's rights, particularly girls' education, gender equality, health, and child protection. - While UNICEF works on a wide range of health issues including communicable diseases, Meena is not specifically associated with the leprosy awareness campaign. *None of the options* - The image clearly depicts the character **Sapna**, who is specifically associated with leprosy awareness campaigns in India. - Therefore, the first option accurately identifies the character and her associated health program.

Question 249: Identify the logo?

A. Leprosy (Correct Answer)
B. TB
C. Malaria
D. HIV

Explanation: ***Leprosy*** - This logo, often featuring a stylized flower or protective shape, is widely recognized as a symbol associated with **leprosy awareness** and efforts to eradicate the disease. - Organizations dedicated to **leprosy elimination** and care frequently use similar designs to represent compassion, hope, and the journey towards healing for individuals affected by this condition. *TB* - The emblem for **tuberculosis (TB)** awareness predominantly features a **red ribbon**, which symbolizes solidarity in the fight against the disease. - While TB is a global health concern, its associated imagery differs significantly from the flower-like logo presented. *Malaria* - The international symbol for **malaria** often incorporates a stylized **mosquito** or images representing its lifecycle and geographic prevalence. - The logo displayed does not resemble any common imagery used in malaria prevention or awareness campaigns. *HIV* - The **red ribbon** is the most universally recognized symbol for **HIV/AIDS** awareness, representing solidarity with people living with HIV and those who have died from AIDS. - This specific logo does not align with the established iconography for HIV/AIDS.

Question 250: A patient from Bihar is admitted with splenomegaly and clinical features suggestive of leishmaniasis. What is the vector responsible for transmitting this disease?

A. Phlebotomus (Correct Answer)
B. Rat flea
C. Black fly
D. Chrysops fly

Explanation: ***Phlebotomus*** - **Phlebotomus** (sandfly), specifically ***Phlebotomus argentipes*** in India, is the principal vector for transmitting **Leishmania donovani** parasites causing **visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar)**. - Bihar is a highly endemic region for kala-azar in India. - The sandfly transmits the parasite when it takes a blood meal from an infected host and then bites an uninfected individual. *Rat flea* - The **rat flea** (**Xenopsylla cheopis**) is the primary vector for diseases like **bubonic plague** and **murine typhus**, not leishmaniasis. - It transmits bacteria such as *Yersinia pestis* and *Rickettsia typhi*. *Black fly* - **Black flies** (**Simulium species**) are vectors for **onchocerciasis** (river blindness), caused by the parasitic worm *Onchocerca volvulus*. - They transmit the microfilariae when biting humans. *Chrysops fly* - The **Chrysops fly** (deer fly or mango fly) is the vector for **Loa loa filariasis** (African eye worm). - It transmits *Loa loa* eyeworm larvae when it bites humans.

Practice by Chapter

Communicable Disease Control Principles

Practice Questions

Vector-Borne Diseases

Practice Questions

Water-Borne Diseases

Practice Questions

Air-Borne Diseases

Practice Questions

Zoonotic Diseases

Practice Questions

Sexually Transmitted Infections

Practice Questions

HIV/AIDS Control Program

Practice Questions

Tuberculosis Control

Practice Questions

Leprosy Elimination

Practice Questions

Emerging and Re-emerging Infections

Practice Questions

Hospital-Acquired Infections

Practice Questions

Integrated Disease Surveillance Project

Practice Questions

Want unlimited practice?

Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.

Start For Free