Infectious Diseases — MCQs

In the context of "Anti-Malaria Month Campaign", consider the following statements: 1. It is observed every year in the month of June 2. It is planned during the Monsoon season 3. It aims to enhance the level of community awareness and participation Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q238

With regard to the Goals, Milestones and Targets for the Global Technical Strategy for Malaria (2016-2030), consider the following statements: 1. Compared to 2015, the target is to reduce the malaria mortality rates globally by at least 90% by year 2030 2. Compared to 2015, the target is to reduce malaria case incidence by 90% by year 2030 3. Eliminate malaria from at least 35 countries, where malaria was transmitted in 2015, by year 2030 Which of the above statements hold true?

Q239

Which of the following diseases are spread by airborne transmission? 1. Influenza 2. Chicken pox 3. Q-fever 4. Psittacosis Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q240

Consider the following criteria which may indicate elimination of lymphatic filariasis in a community: 1. When lymphatic filariasis ceases to be a public health problem in the community 2. When the number of microfilaria carriers declines to 1.5 % within the community 3. When children born in the community after the initiation of elimination programme are free from circulating antigenaemia Which of the criteria stated above hold true?

Infectious Diseases Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 231: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

A. A→3 B→4 C→2 D→1
B. A→3 B→4 C→1 D→2 (Correct Answer)
C. A→4 B→3 C→1 D→2
D. A→4 B→3 C→2 D→1

Explanation: ***A→3 B→4 C→1 D→2 (Correct Answer)*** - **Measles (A)** has an incubation period of **10 to 14 days (3)** - This is the classic incubation period before the prodromal phase begins with cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis. - **Diphtheria (B)** has an incubation period of **2 to 6 days (4)** - This short incubation period is followed by the characteristic pseudomembrane formation. - **Hepatitis A (C)** has an incubation period of **15 to 50 days (1)** - Average is 28-30 days for this fecal-oral transmitted hepatitis. - **Hepatitis B (D)** has an incubation period of **6 weeks to 6 months (2)** - This prolonged incubation period (45-180 days) is characteristic of parenterally transmitted hepatitis. *A→3 B→4 C→2 D→1* - This incorrectly swaps the incubation periods of Hepatitis A and Hepatitis B. Hepatitis B has the longer incubation period (6 weeks to 6 months), not Hepatitis A. *A→4 B→3 C→1 D→2* - This incorrectly assigns Measles an incubation of 2-6 days (too short) and Diphtheria 10-14 days (too long). The correct periods are reversed for these two diseases. *A→4 B→3 C→2 D→1* - This option has multiple errors: wrong incubation periods for both Measles and Diphtheria, and also swaps the Hepatitis A and B incubation periods.

Question 232: Consider the following statements: Prophylactic disinfection includes 1. disinfection of urine specimen of patient with enteric fever 2. pasteurization of milk 3. disinfection of contaminated linen 4. disinfection of water by chlorine Which of these statements are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 2 and 4 only (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Correct: 2 and 4 only*** - **Prophylactic (preventive) disinfection** is performed on materials that are *potentially* contaminated to prevent disease transmission BEFORE actual contamination occurs - **Pasteurization of milk** and **chlorination of water** are classic examples of prophylactic measures applied to substances before consumption - These are routine public health interventions performed regardless of known contamination *Incorrect: 1 and 3 only* - This incorrectly classifies **disinfection of urine specimens from enteric fever patients** and **disinfection of contaminated linen** as prophylactic measures - Both are examples of **concurrent/terminal disinfection** (performed on materials already known to be contaminated from infected patients) - Misses pasteurization and chlorination which are true prophylactic measures *Incorrect: 1, 2, 3 and 4* - While statements 2 and 4 are correct examples of prophylactic disinfection, statements 1 and 3 are NOT - **Statement 1** (disinfection of urine from enteric fever patient) is **concurrent disinfection** - the patient is already infected, and we're disinfecting their excreta - **Statement 3** (disinfection of contaminated linen) is **concurrent/terminal disinfection** - the linen is already contaminated - Prophylactic measures are preventive; concurrent/terminal measures deal with known contamination *Incorrect: 1, 2 and 4 only* - Incorrectly includes statement 1 (disinfection of urine from infected patient) which is concurrent disinfection, not prophylactic - Also incorrectly excludes statement 3 while the issue is that both 1 and 3 are not prophylactic measures

Question 233: The most common site for nosocomial (hospital acquired) infection is:

A. Surgical site
B. Blood stream
C. Respiratory tract
D. Urinary tract (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Urinary tract*** - **Urinary tract infections (UTIs)** are the most frequently acquired nosocomial infections, often associated with **urinary catheterization**. - Catheter-associated UTIs (CAUTIs) account for a significant percentage of all healthcare-associated infections. *Surgical site* - **Surgical site infections (SSIs)** are a common type of nosocomial infection, but they are less frequent than UTIs overall. - SSIs are highly dependent on the type of surgery, duration, and patient risk factors. *Blood stream* - **Bloodstream infections (BSIs)**, including central line-associated bloodstream infections (CLABSIs), are serious nosocomial infections. - While they carry high morbidity and mortality, their overall incidence is lower than that of UTIs. *Respiratory tract* - **Respiratory tract infections**, particularly **ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)**, are significant nosocomial concerns. - However, they are not as common as UTIs when considering all types of healthcare settings and patient populations.

Question 234: In India, the commonest cause of unilateral lymphoedema of lower limb is:

A. Tubercular lymphadenopathy
B. Filariasis (Correct Answer)
C. Carcinoma of penis
D. Lymphoedema tarda

Explanation: ***Filariasis (Correct Answer)*** - **Filariasis**, particularly caused by *Wuchereria bancrofti*, is endemic in many parts of India and is the leading cause of **secondary lymphedema** worldwide. - The parasitic worms block the lymphatic vessels, leading to chronic swelling, thickening of the skin, and can cause grotesque enlargement of limbs, often unilaterally. - In India, filariasis accounts for the vast majority of acquired unilateral lower limb lymphedema cases. *Tubercular lymphadenopathy (Incorrect)* - While **tubercular lymphadenopathy** is common in India, it primarily causes swelling of lymph nodes, often in the neck or axilla. - It typically does not lead to diffuse, unilateral lymphedema of the entire lower limb. *Carcinoma of penis (Incorrect)* - **Carcinoma of the penis** can cause inguinal lymph node metastasis, which might lead to lymphedema if the nodes are extensively involved or surgically removed. - However, it is not the most common cause of unilateral lower limb lymphedema in the general population of India. *Lymphoedema tarda (Incorrect)* - **Lymphedema tarda** is a form of primary lymphedema that typically presents after the age of 35, often without an identifiable cause. - While it can occur in India, it is a congenital or developmental disorder of the lymphatic system and is far less common than filariasis as a cause of acquired lymphedema.

Question 235: In India, for providing HIV treatment services Link ART Centres are situated at:

A. Sub-district level hospitals and Community Health Centres (Correct Answer)
B. Select medical colleges
C. Primary Health Centres
D. Medical colleges and district level hospitals

Explanation: ***Sub-district level hospitals and Community Health Centres*** - **Link ART Centres** are strategically established at **sub-district level hospitals** and **Community Health Centres (CHCs)** as part of the **National AIDS Control Programme (NACO)**. - These centres were created to **decentralize HIV treatment services** and bring them closer to patients, reducing the burden on main ART centres. - They provide **first-line antiretroviral therapy (ART)** and follow-up care for stable patients, improving accessibility and adherence. *Medical colleges and district level hospitals* - These facilities host **main ART Centres** (not Link ART Centres), which serve as primary hubs for HIV treatment. - Main ART Centres handle more complex cases, second-line therapy, and provide training and support to Link ART Centres. *Select medical colleges* - Medical colleges typically host **ART Centres** or **Centres of Excellence (CoE)** for HIV care. - These are tertiary care facilities providing comprehensive HIV services including specialized care and second-line treatment. *Primary Health Centres* - **PHCs** serve as the first point of contact in rural healthcare but lack the infrastructure and specialized staff for ART services. - They play a role in **HIV testing, counseling, and referral** to ART/Link ART Centres but do not provide ART themselves.

Question 236: All are components of Jai Vigyan Mission Mode project on community control of RF/RHD in India EXCEPT:

A. Vaccine development for streptococcal infection (Correct Answer)
B. To study the epidemiology of streptococcal sore throats
C. Antibiotic treatment of streptococcal sore throats
D. To establish registries for RF and RHD

Explanation: ***Vaccine development for streptococcal infection*** - While **vaccine development** for Group A Streptococcus (GAS) is a long-term goal in controlling Rheumatic Fever (RF) and Rheumatic Heart Disease (RHD), it was **not an immediate component** of the Jai Vigyan Mission Mode project. - The mission focused on existing, actionable strategies for community control, rather than basic research and development of new interventions. *To study the epidemiology of streptococcal sore throats* - Understanding the **epidemiology of streptococcal sore throats** (the precursor to RF) is crucial for identifying high-risk populations and tailoring intervention strategies. - This component helps in mapping the incidence and prevalence of infections required to implement effective control strategies. *Antibiotic treatment of streptococcal sore throats* - **Prompt antibiotic treatment** of streptococcal sore throats is a cornerstone of primary prevention for RF, preventing the immune response that leads to the disease. - This is a direct, immediate intervention aimed at breaking the chain of infection and disease progression. *To establish registries for RF and RHD* - Establishing **registries for RF and RHD** is essential for monitoring disease burden, tracking outcomes, and evaluating the effectiveness of control programs. - Registries provide valuable data for public health planning and resource allocation.

Question 237: In the context of "Anti-Malaria Month Campaign", consider the following statements: 1. It is observed every year in the month of June 2. It is planned during the Monsoon season 3. It aims to enhance the level of community awareness and participation Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 3 (Correct Answer)
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 only

Explanation: ***1 and 3*** - The **Anti-Malaria Month Campaign** is observed annually in **June** to raise awareness and implement preventive measures ahead of peak malaria transmission during the monsoon season. - A primary objective is to **enhance community awareness and participation** in malaria control efforts through activities like vector control (larvicidal measures, source reduction), early case detection, and prompt treatment. - Statement 2 is incorrect because the campaign is **planned and launched in June**, which coincides with the **onset** of monsoon, but the planning phase occurs **before** the monsoon rains intensify. The phrase "planned during monsoon" incorrectly suggests the planning happens during the monsoon period, whereas planning occurs in the pre-monsoon period (April-May) for implementation starting in June. *1 and 2* - While statement 1 is correct (observed in June) and statement 3 would be correct (enhancing participation), statement 2 creates confusion about timing. - The campaign **planning occurs before the monsoon season** (April-May), and **implementation begins in June** as monsoon arrives. Saying it is "planned during monsoon" is technically inaccurate. *2 and 3* - Statement 2 is incorrect as explained above - the campaign planning precedes the monsoon season. - While statement 3 about enhancing community participation is correct, this combination is wrong due to statement 2. *3 only* - This misses statement 1, which is clearly correct - the Anti-Malaria Month Campaign has been traditionally observed in **June** every year as part of the National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP). - Both statements 1 and 3 are correct, making this option incomplete.

Question 238: With regard to the Goals, Milestones and Targets for the Global Technical Strategy for Malaria (2016-2030), consider the following statements: 1. Compared to 2015, the target is to reduce the malaria mortality rates globally by at least 90% by year 2030 2. Compared to 2015, the target is to reduce malaria case incidence by 90% by year 2030 3. Eliminate malaria from at least 35 countries, where malaria was transmitted in 2015, by year 2030 Which of the above statements hold true?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***1, 2 and 3*** - All three statements accurately reflect the **core targets** set by the Global Technical Strategy for Malaria (2016-2030). - These ambitious goals aim to achieve significant reductions in malaria burden and eventual eradication in many regions. *1 and 3 only* - This option is incorrect because it omits statement 2, which is a verified goal for **reducing malaria case incidence**. - All three statements are indeed part of the strategy's published objectives. *1 and 2 only* - This option is incorrect as it excludes statement 3 regarding the **elimination of malaria** from at least 35 countries. - The strategy encompasses all three stated objectives for global malaria control. *2 and 3 only* - This option is incorrect because it fails to include statement 1, which specifies the target for **reducing malaria mortality rates**. - The strategy explicitly addresses all three aspects: mortality, incidence, and country-level elimination.

Question 239: Which of the following diseases are spread by airborne transmission? 1. Influenza 2. Chicken pox 3. Q-fever 4. Psittacosis Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 3 and 4 only (Correct Answer)
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: ***3 and 4 only*** - **Q-fever (Coxiella burnetii)** and **Psittacosis (Chlamydia psittaci)** are true **airborne diseases** that spread via droplet nuclei or dust particles <5 μm that remain suspended in air and can travel long distances. - **Q-fever** spreads through inhalation of contaminated aerosols from infected animal products (particularly during parturition in livestock). - **Psittacosis** spreads via inhalation of aerosolized dried bird droppings or respiratory secretions from infected birds. - **Airborne transmission** requires particles small enough to remain suspended in air for extended periods and travel beyond 1-2 meters. *1, 2, 3 and 4* - This option is incorrect because **Influenza** is classified as a **droplet-borne disease**, not airborne. - **Influenza** spreads primarily through large respiratory droplets (>5 μm) that travel <1 meter and settle quickly, requiring close contact for transmission. - **Chickenpox**, while highly contagious, has both airborne and direct contact routes, but the primary emphasis in this question context should be on strict airborne diseases (Q-fever and Psittacosis). - The distinction between droplet and airborne transmission is critical for infection control measures (surgical masks vs N95 respirators). *1 and 3 only* - This option is incorrect as **Influenza** is not an airborne disease but rather spreads via droplet transmission. - While **Q-fever** is correctly identified as airborne, including Influenza makes this combination incorrect. - **Psittacosis** is also airborne and should be included. *1 and 4 only* - This option is incorrect because **Influenza** does not meet the criteria for airborne transmission. - While **Psittacosis** is correctly identified, the inclusion of Influenza and exclusion of Q-fever makes this choice inaccurate. - Both Q-fever and Psittacosis are classic examples of airborne zoonotic infections.

Question 240: Consider the following criteria which may indicate elimination of lymphatic filariasis in a community: 1. When lymphatic filariasis ceases to be a public health problem in the community 2. When the number of microfilaria carriers declines to 1.5 % within the community 3. When children born in the community after the initiation of elimination programme are free from circulating antigenaemia Which of the criteria stated above hold true?

A. 1, 2 and 3 (Correct Answer)
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Explanation: ***1, 2 and 3*** - All three criteria reflect the **WHO framework for elimination of lymphatic filariasis** as a public health problem. - **Criterion 1**: Represents the overarching goal that the disease burden and transmission have been reduced such that it no longer poses a significant public health threat in the community. - **Criterion 2**: A **microfilaria carrier rate < 1-1.5%** indicates substantial reduction in active infection and transmission potential in the population. - **Criterion 3**: **Transmission Assessment Survey (TAS)** criteria include demonstrating that children born after program initiation are free from circulating filarial antigen (< 2% antigen prevalence in 6-7 year age group), confirming **interruption of transmission**. - Together, these criteria provide epidemiological, clinical, and transmission-based evidence of elimination. *1 and 3 only* - This option incorrectly excludes the **decline in microfilaria carrier prevalence** as a criterion. - Reduction in **microfilaremia prevalence** is a critical epidemiological indicator showing decreased infection reservoir and reduced transmission potential in the community. *1 and 2 only* - This option incorrectly excludes the criterion related to **children being free from circulating antigenaemia**. - The **TAS (Transmission Assessment Survey)** uses antigen testing in children as the primary tool to verify interruption of transmission, making this criterion essential for confirming elimination. *2 and 3 only* - This option excludes the overarching criterion that **lymphatic filariasis ceases to be a public health problem**. - While specific measurable criteria (2 and 3) are important, the overall assessment that the disease no longer constitutes a public health problem remains a fundamental elimination indicator.

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Communicable Disease Control Principles

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Vector-Borne Diseases

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Water-Borne Diseases

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Air-Borne Diseases

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Zoonotic Diseases

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Sexually Transmitted Infections

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HIV/AIDS Control Program

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Tuberculosis Control

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Leprosy Elimination

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Emerging and Re-emerging Infections

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Hospital-Acquired Infections

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Integrated Disease Surveillance Project

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