Lower Limb Practice Questions

Q: Bursa involved in housemaid's knee:

Prepatellar bursa. ***Prepatellar bursa*** - **Housemaid's knee** refers to inflammation of the **prepatellar bursa**, located in front of the kneecap. - This condition is often due to **prolonged kneeling** while leaning forward, common in occupations such as housemaids or carpet layers who scrub floors or work on their knees. *Infrapatellar bursa* - The infrapatellar bursa is located **below the patella** and its inflammation is associated with **clergyman's knee** (superficial infrapatellar bursitis) from upright kneeling, or **jumper's knee** (deep infrapatellar bursitis) in athletes. - While it's in the knee region, it is not the bursa primarily involved in housemaid's knee. *Olecranon bursa* - The olecranon bursa is located at the **tip of the elbow** and its inflammation is known as **student's elbow** or olecranon bursitis, often caused by repetitive pressure on the elbow. - It is not associated with knee conditions. *Ischial bursa* - The ischial bursa is situated over the **ischial tuberosity** in the buttock region. Inflammation here is called **weaver's bottom** or ischial bursitis, often due to prolonged sitting. - This bursa is located in the hip/buttock area and is unrelated to the knee.

Q: Lateral dislocation of the patella is prevented by

Vastus medialis. **_1. Vastus medialis_** - The **vastus medialis** muscle, particularly its oblique fibers (**vastus medialis obliquus**), is crucial in preventing **lateral patellar subluxation or dislocation** by pulling the patella medially. - Weakness or dysfunction of the vastus medialis, especially relative to the vastus lateralis, can predispose individuals to **patellofemoral instability**. *2. Rectus femoris* - The **rectus femoris** is one of the quadriceps muscles, primarily responsible for **knee extension** and hip flexion. - While it contributes to overall patella stability, it does not specifically prevent **lateral dislocation** as effectively as the vastus medialis. *3. Vastus lateralis* - The **vastus lateralis** is part of the quadriceps and primarily pulls the patella **laterally**. - An overactive or dominant vastus lateralis can actually **contribute to lateral patellar tracking problems** and dislocation. *4. Vastus intermedius* - The **vastus intermedius** lies deep to the rectus femoris and is mainly involved in **knee extension**. - It has a central pull on the patella and does not have a significant role in preventing **lateral patella displacement**.

Q: A man is struck with a lathi on the lateral aspect of the head of fibula. Which of the following sensory deficits can occur as a result of nerve injury?

Loss of sensation of adjacent sides of 1st & 2nd toe. ***Loss of sensation of adjacent sides of 1st & 2nd toe*** - Injury to the lateral aspect of the head of the fibula commonly damages the **common fibular (peroneal) nerve**, which then divides into superficial and deep fibular nerves. - The **deep fibular nerve** supplies sensation to the web space between the first and second toes, and its injury would cause loss of sensation in this specific area. - This is the correct **sensory deficit** resulting from common fibular nerve injury at the fibular head. *Loss of sensation of lateral foot* - Sensation to the lateral aspect of the foot is primarily supplied by the **sural nerve**, a branch of the tibial nerve, not the common fibular nerve. - Damage to the common fibular nerve would not typically result in isolated loss of sensation on the lateral foot. *Dorsiflexion not possible* - Inability to **dorsiflex** the foot ("foot drop") is a common consequence of common fibular nerve injury. - However, this is a **motor deficit**, not a **sensory deficit** as specifically asked in the question. - Dorsiflexion is performed by tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus, both innervated by the deep fibular nerve. *Inversion inability* - **Foot inversion** is primarily mediated by muscles innervated by the **tibial nerve** (tibialis posterior) and to a lesser extent by the deep fibular nerve (tibialis anterior). - This represents a **motor deficit**, not a **sensory deficit** as asked in the question. - Injury to the common fibular nerve would not significantly impair inversion since tibialis posterior (the primary invertor) remains intact.

Q: Which of the following statements about the gluteus maximus is incorrect?

Supplied by superior gluteal nerve. ***Supplied by superior gluteal nerve*** - The gluteus maximus is primarily innervated by the **inferior gluteal nerve**, not the superior gluteal nerve. - The **superior gluteal nerve** typically supplies the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae. *Causes extension at hip* - The gluteus maximus is the **most powerful extensor** of the hip, especially from a flexed position. - This action is crucial for activities such as **climbing stairs**, running, and standing up. *It is lateral rotator of thigh* - The gluteus maximus is a significant **lateral rotator** of the thigh, contributing to external rotation at the hip joint. - Its large size and fiber orientation make it an effective muscle for this action. *Insertion is at gluteal tuberosity* - The gluteus maximus has a dual insertion: a portion inserts onto the **gluteal tuberosity** of the femur. - The majority of its fibers also insert into the **iliotibial tract**, which then attaches to the lateral condyle of the tibia.

Q: A 41-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department with a swollen and painful foot. Radiographic examination reveals that the head of the talus has become displaced inferiorly, thereby causing the medial longitudinal arch of the foot to fall. What is the most likely cause in this case?

Tearing of the plantar calcaneonavicular (spring) ligament. ***Tearing of the plantar calcaneonavicular (spring) ligament*** - The **plantar calcaneonavicular ligament**, also known as the **spring ligament**, is crucial for supporting the head of the talus and maintaining the **medial longitudinal arch** of the foot. - Tearing of this ligament leads to the **inferior displacement of the talar head** and subsequent collapse of the arch, consistent with the symptoms described. *Fracture of the navicular bone* - A fracture of the **navicular bone** would typically cause localized pain and tenderness over the navicular, and while it could contribute to arch instability, it wouldn't primarily cause the **talar head** to *inferiorly displace* in this specific manner. - While a navicular fracture might lead to secondary arch collapse, the primary issue described is the displacement of the **talar head**, which is more directly related to spring ligament integrity. *Tearing of the deltoid ligament* - The **deltoid ligament** is located on the medial side of the ankle and primarily stabilizes the **talocrural joint**, preventing excessive eversion of the foot. - Its rupture would lead to ankle instability and pain, but it doesn't directly support the **medial longitudinal arch** in the same way the spring ligament does, nor would its tearing directly cause the talar head to displace inferiorly as described. *Sprain of the calcaneocuboid ligament* - The **calcaneocuboid ligament** is a component of the **lateral longitudinal arch** of the foot and connects the calcaneus to the cuboid bone. - A sprain of this ligament would primarily affect the *lateral* foot stability and lead to pain in that region, not the described collapse of the **medial longitudinal arch** or inferior displacement of the talar head.

Q: A 60-year-old male patient presented to the OPD with complaints of a mass in the epigastric region with no other complaints. On examination, the mass was found to be pulsatile. A USG abdomen and CT abdomen were performed. The doctor then performed a procedure, accessing an artery in the lower limb and opening a sheath to expose the artery. Which of the following structures is enclosed inside that sheath?

Femoral canal. ***Femoral canal*** - The description of accessing an artery in the lower limb and opening a sheath to expose it strongly suggests an intervention related to the **femoral artery**, which is part of the structures found in the femoral triangle [1]. - The **femoral sheath** encloses the femoral artery, femoral vein, and the femoral canal (which contains lymphatic vessels and a lymph node called the deep inguinal lymph node of Cloquet). The procedure likely involves accessing one of these [1]. *Cooper's ligament* - **Cooper's ligament** (pectineal ligament) is a fibrous band on the superior aspect of the superior pubic ramus and is involved in the inguinal region but is not part of the femoral sheath or directly accessed for arterial procedures in this context. - It serves as an attachment point for various structures but does not contain major vessels or nerves that would be exposed through this described sheath. *Femoral nerve* - The **femoral nerve** runs lateral to the femoral sheath and is not contained within it. It originates from the lumbar plexus and supplies the anterior thigh muscles. - Accessing the femoral artery for an interventional procedure would typically avoid direct involvement or opening a sheath around the femoral nerve. *Obturator nerve* - The **obturator nerve** is a branch of the lumbar plexus that passes through the obturator foramen to supply the medial compartment of the thigh. - It is anatomically distant from the femoral triangle and the femoral sheath and would not be encountered or enclosed in a sheath during a femoral artery access procedure.

Q: Eversion occurs at which joint?

Subtalar. ***Subtalar*** - **Eversion** of the foot is a complex movement involving the outward turning of the sole. - This motion primarily occurs at the **subtalar joint**, which is formed by the talus and calcaneus bones. *Ankle* - The **ankle joint** (talocrural joint) is primarily responsible for **dorsiflexion** and **plantarflexion** of the foot. - While it contributes to overall foot movement, it is not the main joint for eversion. *Metatarsophalangeal* - **Metatarsophalangeal joints** are located between the metatarsals and the proximal phalanges of the toes. - These joints are primarily involved in the **flexion and extension** of the toes, not eversion of the foot. *Interphalangeal* - **Interphalangeal joints** are the joints within the toes, responsible for **flexion and extension** of the phalanges. - They play no direct role in the eversion of the entire foot.

Q: Which of the following muscles is not considered a composite muscle?

Rectus femoris. ***Rectus femoris*** - This muscle is part of the quadriceps femoris group and is solely innervated by the **femoral nerve**. - Although it has two heads of origin (straight head from AIIS and reflected head from acetabulum), it is **not a composite muscle** because both heads receive innervation from the same nerve. - A composite muscle is defined by **dual innervation from different nerves**, not simply by having multiple heads of origin. - It functions primarily in **knee extension** and **hip flexion**. *Pectineus* - The pectineus is considered a **composite muscle** because it receives innervation from both the **femoral nerve** and the **obturator nerve**. - Its dual innervation from different nerves indicates its developmental origin from two different muscle masses. *Adductor magnus* - This muscle is known for its **composite nature**, receiving innervation from both the **obturator nerve** (adductor portion) and the **sciatic nerve** (hamstring portion). - Its dual innervation and functional roles as both an adductor and an extensor of the hip highlight its complex structure. *Biceps femoris* - The biceps femoris is a **composite muscle** with two heads: the long head (innervated by the **tibial division of the sciatic nerve**) and the short head (innervated by the **common fibular division of the sciatic nerve**). - Its dual innervation from different nerve divisions reflects its development from different muscle primordia.

Q: Which lymph nodes drain the skin and fascia of the great toe?

Superficial inguinal lymph nodes. ***Superficial inguinal lymph nodes*** - The **superficial inguinal lymph nodes** are responsible for draining lymph from the skin and fascia of the lower limb, including the **great toe**. [1] - They are located in the superficial fascia below the inguinal ligament and receive lymphatic vessels associated with the **great saphenous vein**. *External iliac lymph nodes* - The external iliac lymph nodes drain structures within the **pelvis** and receive lymph from the **deep inguinal lymph nodes**, not directly from the skin of the great toe. - They are located along the external iliac artery and vein. *Internal iliac lymph nodes* - The internal iliac lymph nodes primarily drain lymph from the **pelvic organs** and the **perineum**. - They do not directly receive lymphatic drainage from the great toe or the superficial lower limb. *Deep inguinal lymph nodes* - The deep inguinal lymph nodes are located deeper, medial to the **femoral vein**, and receive lymph mainly from the deep structures of the lower limb. - While they eventually drain into the external iliac nodes, they do not directly drain the superficial skin and fascia of the great toe.

Question 1

The root value of the femoral nerve is:

Accepted Answer

Posterior divisions of anterior primary rami of L2, L3, and L4

Answer

Anterior divisions of anterior primary rami of L2, L3, and L4

Answer

Anterior divisions of posterior primary rami of L2, L3, and L4

Answer

Posterior divisions of posterior primary rami of L2, L3, and L4

Question 2

Bursa involved in housemaid's knee:

Accepted Answer

Prepatellar bursa

Answer

Ischial bursa

Answer

Infrapatellar bursa

Answer

Olecranon bursa

Question 3

Lateral dislocation of the patella is prevented by

Accepted Answer

Vastus medialis

Answer

Rectus femoris

Answer

Vastus lateralis

Answer

Vastus intermedius

Question 4

A man is struck with a lathi on the lateral aspect of the head of fibula. Which of the following sensory deficits can occur as a result of nerve injury?

Accepted Answer

Loss of sensation of adjacent sides of 1st & 2nd toe

Answer

Dorsiflexion not possible

Answer

Loss of sensation of lateral foot

Answer

Inversion inability

Question 5

Which of the following statements about the gluteus maximus is incorrect?

Accepted Answer

Supplied by superior gluteal nerve

Answer

Causes extension at hip

Answer

It is lateral rotator of thigh

Answer

Insertion is at gluteal tuberosity

Question 6

A 41-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department with a swollen and painful foot. Radiographic examination reveals that the head of the talus has become displaced inferiorly, thereby causing the medial longitudinal arch of the foot to fall. What is the most likely cause in this case?

Accepted Answer

Tearing of the plantar calcaneonavicular (spring) ligament

Answer

Fracture of the navicular bone

Answer

Tearing of the deltoid ligament

Answer

Sprain of the calcaneocuboid ligament

Question 7

A 60-year-old male patient presented to the OPD with complaints of a mass in the epigastric region with no other complaints. On examination, the mass was found to be pulsatile. A USG abdomen and CT abdomen were performed. The doctor then performed a procedure, accessing an artery in the lower limb and opening a sheath to expose the artery. Which of the following structures is enclosed inside that sheath?

Accepted Answer

Femoral canal

Answer

Cooper's ligament

Answer

Obturator nerve

Answer

Femoral nerve

Question 8

Eversion occurs at which joint?

Accepted Answer

Subtalar

Answer

Ankle

Answer

Metatarsophalangeal

Answer

Interphalangeal

Question 9

Which of the following muscles is not considered a composite muscle?

Accepted Answer

Rectus femoris

Answer

Adductor magnus

Answer

Biceps femoris

Answer

Pectineus

Question 10

Which lymph nodes drain the skin and fascia of the great toe?

Accepted Answer

Superficial inguinal lymph nodes

Answer

External iliac lymph nodes

Answer

Internal iliac lymph nodes

Answer

Deep inguinal lymph nodes

Lower Limb — MCQs

Lower Limb — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?