UPSC-CMS 2013 - Obstetrics and Gynecology Practice Questions

Q: A 28-year old woman comes with infertility. Husband's semen analysis is normal. Endometrial biopsy shows secretory changes with no evidence of tuberculosis. On hysterosalpingography both tubes show tubal blockage. What should be the next step in management?

Diagnostic laparoscopy and chromo-pertubation. ***Diagnostic laparoscopy and chromo-pertubation*** - This procedure directly visualizes the fallopian tubes and surrounding pelvic structures, allowing for definitive confirmation of tubal blockage and identification of potential causes like **endometriosis** or **adhesions**. - **Chromo-pertubation** involves injecting a dye through the cervix to assess tubal patency and identify the exact location and nature of the blockage. *IVF* - While IVF is a viable option for tubal factor infertility, it is generally considered after a more thorough diagnostic workup, especially when the cause of blockage is unknown and potentially treatable. - Proceeding directly to IVF without assessing the possibility of surgical correction might be premature and miss an opportunity for natural conception or a less invasive intervention. *Tuboplasty* - **Tuboplasty** is a surgical procedure to repair or reconstruct damaged fallopian tubes. - However, its success depends on the extent of damage and the specific type of blockage, which can only be determined after a diagnostic evaluation like laparoscopy. *ICSI* - **ICSI (Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection)** is a specialized form of IVF primarily used for severe male factor infertility, not tubal blockage, especially when the husband's semen analysis is normal. - While ICSI can be part of an IVF cycle, it's not the primary next step for diagnosing or treating tubal blockage in a woman with normal male factor.

Q: Which of the following statements is true for maternal rubella infection?

The primary infection is responsible for birth defects. ***The primary infection is responsible for birth defects*** - **Primary maternal rubella infection** during pregnancy is the primary cause of congenital rubella syndrome, as the virus can cross the placenta and infect the developing fetus. - The risk and severity of **birth defects** are highest when the mother is infected during the first trimester. *24% incidence of congenital infection if acquired during the last month of pregnancy* - While rubella infection late in pregnancy can still lead to fetal infection, the incidence of **congenital rubella syndrome** is significantly lower in the last trimester (typically less than 1%) compared to the first trimester. - The reported incidence of 24% is excessively high for an infection acquired in the **last month of pregnancy**. *It leads to abortions before 16 weeks of gestation* - While **rubella infection** can increase the risk of spontaneous abortion, especially if acquired early in pregnancy, it is not the *only* or *guaranteed* outcome. Many infected pregnancies continue to term with varying degrees of fetal compromise. - The statement suggests a direct and absolute causal link to abortion before 16 weeks, which is too definitive. *It causes blindness with recurrent infection* - **Congenital rubella syndrome** can cause ocular defects such as **cataracts**, **glaucoma**, and **retinopathy**, which can lead to blindness. - However, rubella infection typically confers **lifelong immunity**, making **recurrent infection** extremely rare and thus not a common mechanism for causing blindness.

Q: Contraindications for medical abortions are all except :

Age more than 35 years. ***Age more than 35 years*** - Age alone, including being over 35 years old, is **not a contraindication** for a medical abortion. - The decision for medical abortion is based on health status, gestational age, and patient choice, not primarily on age. *Uncontrolled seizure disorder* - An **uncontrolled seizure disorder** can be a relative contraindication due to the stress and potential risks associated with the abortion process, which could trigger seizures. - Prostaglandins used in medical abortion can sometimes **increase uterine contractions and pain**, which may exacerbate a seizure disorder. *Hemoglobin less than 8 gm%* - A **hemoglobin level less than 8 gm%** indicates significant anemia, which increases the risk of complications from blood loss during a medical abortion. - Patients with severe anemia may require **blood transfusion** if significant bleeding occurs, making medical abortion less safe. *Undiagnosed adnexal mass* - An **undiagnosed adnexal mass** can be a contraindication because it might mask an **ectopic pregnancy**, for which medical abortion drugs are not effective and could be dangerous. - It also raises concerns about potential **complications or rupture** of the mass during the abortion process.

Q: Success of tubal re-canalization is best with :

Laparoscopic ring application. ***Laparoscopic ring application (Falope ring/Tubal clips)*** - Mechanical occlusion methods (clips and rings) cause **minimal tissue destruction**, typically affecting only **2-3 cm** of the fallopian tube. - The tubal segments remain relatively **healthy and undamaged**, with minimal scarring and fibrosis. - Reversal success rates are **highest at 70-90%** due to the preservation of tubal architecture and length. - These methods are considered the **most reversible** form of tubal sterilization. *Pomeroy's technique* - Involves excision of a tubal loop (approximately 3-4 cm) with ligation, causing moderate tissue damage. - The cut ends heal by scarring, and some tubal length is permanently lost. - Reversal success rates are moderate at **60-70%**. - More tissue damage than clip/ring methods but still reasonably reversible. *Uchida's technique* - Involves separating the serosa from the muscularis, ligating and excising a **larger segment** of the tube (4-5 cm). - Creates more extensive tissue damage with greater tubal length loss. - Reversal success rates are lower at **40-50%** due to the complexity and extent of tissue disruption. *Fimbriectomy* - Involves complete removal of the **fimbrial end** of the fallopian tube, which is essential for ovum pickup. - Even if re-anastomosis is technically successful, the **absence of fimbriae** results in extremely poor functional outcomes. - Reversal success rates are very poor at **<20%**, making this the least reversible sterilization method.

Q: Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for combined contraceptive oral pills ?

Previous history of thrombo-embolism. ***Previous history of thrombo-embolism*** - A history of **thromboembolism** significantly increases the risk of recurrent events with combined oral contraceptive pills (COCs) due to their procoagulant effects [1, 2]. - COCs contain **estrogen**, which can enhance the synthesis of clotting factors and decrease natural anticoagulants, making them absolutely contraindicated in this setting [1]. *Migraine without aura* - **Migraine without aura** is generally considered a relative contraindication or a condition requiring careful consideration, not an absolute contraindication, for combined oral contraceptive pills. - The risk of **stroke** is slightly elevated in women with migraine without aura using COCs, but it is not as high as with migraine with aura. *Diabetes mellitus* - **Diabetes mellitus** itself is not an absolute contraindication for combined oral contraceptive pills, especially if it is well-controlled and there are no vascular complications. - However, in cases of diabetes with **vascular complications** (e.g., nephropathy, retinopathy, neuropathy) or of >20 years' duration, COCs are generally contraindicated. *Gall bladder disease* - While combined oral contraceptive pills can increase the risk of **gallstone formation**, especially in susceptible individuals, it is not considered an absolute contraindication. - The effect is linked to **estrogen-induced changes** in bile composition, but careful monitoring is usually sufficient rather than absolute avoidance.

Question 1

A 28-year old woman comes with infertility. Husband's semen analysis is normal. Endometrial biopsy shows secretory changes with no evidence of tuberculosis. On hysterosalpingography both tubes show tubal blockage. What should be the next step in management?

Accepted Answer

Diagnostic laparoscopy and chromo-pertubation

Answer

IVF

Answer

Tuboplasty

Answer

ICSI

Question 2

Which of the following statements is true for maternal rubella infection?

Accepted Answer

The primary infection is responsible for birth defects

Answer

24% incidence of congenital infection if acquired during the last month of pregnancy

Answer

It leads to abortions before 16 weeks of gestation

Answer

It causes blindness with recurrent infection

Question 3

Contraindications for medical abortions are all except :

Accepted Answer

Age more than 35 years

Answer

Uncontrolled seizure disorder

Answer

Hemoglobin less than 8 gm%

Answer

Undiagnosed adnexal mass

Question 4

In a woman using an intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD) an unexpected pregnancy occurs and the IUCD threads are visible. What is the reason to recommend removal of the device ?

Accepted Answer

To prevent the risk of subsequent septic abortion and preterm labour

Answer

To prevent post partum haemorrhage

Answer

To prevent congenital abnormality of the newborn

Answer

To prevent perforation

Question 5

Success of tubal re-canalization is best with :

Accepted Answer

Laparoscopic ring application

Answer

Uchida's technique

Answer

Fimbriectomy

Answer

Pomeroy's technique

Question 6

Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for combined contraceptive oral pills ?

Accepted Answer

Previous history of thrombo-embolism

Answer

Migraine without aura

Answer

Diabetes mellitus

Answer

Gall bladder disease

UPSC-CMS 2013 — Obstetrics and Gynecology