UPSC-CMS 2012

Q: Consider the following statements : HIV can be transmitted to a healthcare worker from a patient through : 1. A needle stick injury 2. Contact with the patient's blood 3. External examination of the patient 4. Inhalation Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 and 2 only. ***1 and 2 only*** - **Needle stick injuries** pose a significant risk as they involve direct inoculation of infected blood into the healthcare worker's bloodstream. - **Contact with a patient's blood** can lead to transmission if there are cuts, abrasions, or mucous membrane exposures on the healthcare worker. *2 and 3 only* - **Contact with a patient's blood** is a known transmission route, but **external examination** alone, without blood contact or needle stick, typically carries no risk of HIV transmission. - HIV is not transmitted through casual contact or touch during an examination. *1 and 4* - **Needle stick injuries** are a recognized transmission route, but **inhalation** is not a mechanism for HIV transmission. - HIV is not an airborne virus and does not spread like respiratory illnesses. *1, 2 and 3* - While **needle stick injuries** and **contact with blood** are clear transmission pathways, **external examination** of a patient, in the absence of blood contact or needle stick injuries, does not transmit HIV. - HIV transmission requires specific fluid exchange (blood, semen, vaginal fluids, breast milk) entering the bloodstream or mucous membranes. [Practice more UPSC-CMS 2012 questions on OnCourse]

Q: The commonest cause of primary hyper-parathyroidism is

Parathyroid adenoma. ***Parathyroid adenoma*** - **Parathyroid adenomas** account for approximately **85% of all cases** of primary hyperparathyroidism. [1] - This condition involves a **benign tumor** of one or more parathyroid glands that secretes excessive parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to hypercalcemia. [1] *Idiopathic parathyroid hyperplasia* - **Idiopathic parathyroid hyperplasia** is responsible for about **10-15% of cases** of primary hyperparathyroidism, making it less common than adenomas. - In hyperplasia, **all four parathyroid glands** are typically enlarged and overactive, unlike the localized growth in an adenoma. *Familial hyperparathyroidism* - **Familial hyperparathyroidism** is a rare cause, accounting for **less than 1% of cases**, and is often associated with genetic syndromes like **MEN1** or **MEN2A**. - It involves inherited genetic mutations that predispose individuals to parathyroid gland overactivity, which distinguishes it from sporadic causes. *Primary parathyroid carcinoma* - **Primary parathyroid carcinoma** is an **extremely rare malignancy**, accounting for **less than 1%** of all primary hyperparathyroidism cases. - While it causes severe hypercalcemia, its rarity means it is not the commonest cause. [Practice more UPSC-CMS 2012 questions on OnCourse]

Q: In a 30-year-old male smoker, the commonest cause of dry gangrene of foot will be

Buerger's disease. Buerger's disease - **Buerger's disease** (**thromboangiitis obliterans**) is strongly associated with **heavy smoking** and typically affects young to middle-aged adult males, leading to dry gangrene in the extremities. - It involves **inflammation and thrombosis** of small and medium-sized arteries and veins, predominantly in the limbs, often manifesting as **ischemic pain**, ulcerations, and gangrene. *Diabetes mellitus* - While **diabetes** can cause dry gangrene due to **peripheral artery disease** and small vessel disease, it is more commonly associated with **wet gangrene** due to increased infection risk, and the age and smoking history point away from it being the *commonest* cause in this specific demographic for dry gangrene [1]. - Diabetic neuropathy can also mask symptoms, leading to delayed presentation and worsening tissue damage [1]. *Embolism* - An **embolic event** would typically present with **sudden onset** severe pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, and paralysis (the "6 Ps"), leading to acute limb ischemia rather than the progressive dry gangrene described implied in the question. - While it can cause tissue necrosis, it's usually an acute event rather than a chronic process leading to gradual gangrene. *Atherosclerosis* - While **atherosclerosis** is a significant cause of peripheral artery disease and gangrene, especially in smokers, it typically affects an **older population** than the 30-year-old male described [2]. - In younger smokers with gangrene, **Buerger's disease** is a more specific and common diagnosis, as atherosclerosis tends to manifest later in life unless other significant risk factors are present [2]. [Practice more UPSC-CMS 2012 questions on OnCourse]

Q: Which of the following statements is true about antibiotic therapy?

It has its greatest effect on multiplying organisms. ***It has its greatest effect on multiplying organisms*** - Most **antibiotics** target processes essential for bacterial growth and replication, such as cell wall synthesis, protein synthesis, or DNA replication. - Therefore, their efficacy is highest against **actively multiplying bacteria**, as these processes are most vulnerable during periods of rapid growth. *It enhances the intracellular killing of organisms by phagocytes* - Antibiotics primarily act directly on bacteria, either **killing them (bactericidal)** or inhibiting their growth (bacteriostatic), rather than directly augmenting host immune cell functions like intracellular killing by phagocytes. - While antibiotics reduce the bacterial load, which aids phagocytosis, they do not directly enhance the phagocyte's intrinsic killing mechanisms. *It facilitates killing of organisms by activation of complements* - The **complement system** is part of the innate immune response and is activated by antibodies or microbial surface components; antibiotics do not directly activate this system. - Antibiotic action is independent of complement activation, although a reduced bacterial load can indirectly influence the overall immune response. *It enhances the uptake of organisms by phagocytes* - Enhancing the uptake of organisms by phagocytes (opsonization) is primarily mediated by host immune components such as **antibodies** and **complement proteins**, which coat bacteria to facilitate recognition. - Antibiotics do not directly opsonize bacteria or enhance phagocytic uptake; their role is to inhibit or kill bacteria directly. [Practice more UPSC-CMS 2012 questions on OnCourse]

Q: The central venous pressure (CVP) is low in

Tension pneumothorax. ***Tension pneumothorax*** - A **tension pneumothorax** causes compression of the **superior and inferior vena cava** due to increased intrathoracic pressure and mediastinal shift. - This compression **impairs venous return** to the right atrium, leading to **decreased central venous pressure (CVP)**. - Despite elevated intrathoracic pressure, the net effect is **reduced venous return and low CVP**, along with hypotension and cardiac compromise. - This is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate needle decompression. *Acute left ventricular failure* - In **acute left ventricular failure**, the left ventricle fails to pump blood effectively, causing backup into the pulmonary circulation. - However, the **right ventricle continues to pump** blood into the pulmonary circulation, leading to **increased right atrial pressure and elevated CVP**. - Patients typically present with **elevated CVP** along with pulmonary edema and dyspnea. *Massive pulmonary embolism* - A **massive pulmonary embolism** causes acute increase in **pulmonary vascular resistance** and right ventricular afterload. - The right ventricle becomes acutely strained and dilated, leading to **elevated right atrial pressure and increased CVP**. - Clinical features include hypotension, tachycardia, and jugular venous distension indicating high CVP. *Pericardial effusion* - A **pericardial effusion** causing **cardiac tamponade** compresses all cardiac chambers and restricts ventricular filling. - This leads to **equalization of diastolic pressures** in all chambers and **markedly elevated CVP**. - Classic Beck's triad includes hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and **jugular venous distension** (elevated CVP). [Practice more UPSC-CMS 2012 questions on OnCourse]

109 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations

109

Questions

Subjects

All (109)Anatomy (3)Anesthesiology (1)Biochemistry (7)Community Medicine (16)ENT (2)Internal Medicine (7)Microbiology (2)Obstetrics and Gynecology (37)Ophthalmology (2)Orthopaedics (1)Pathology (2)Pediatrics (4)Pharmacology (6)Physiology (2)Surgery (17)

Community Medicine

1 questions

Consider the following statements : HIV can be transmitted to a healthcare worker from a patient through : 1. A needle stick injury 2. Contact with the patient's blood 3. External examination of the patient 4. Inhalation Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Internal Medicine

2 questions

The commonest cause of primary hyper-parathyroidism is

In a 30-year-old male smoker, the commonest cause of dry gangrene of foot will be

UPSC-CMS 2012 - Internal Medicine UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1: The commonest cause of primary hyper-parathyroidism is

A. Idiopathic parathyroid hyperplasia
B. Familial hyperparathyroidism
C. Primary parathyroid carcinoma
D. Parathyroid adenoma (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Parathyroid adenoma*** - **Parathyroid adenomas** account for approximately **85% of all cases** of primary hyperparathyroidism. [1] - This condition involves a **benign tumor** of one or more parathyroid glands that secretes excessive parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to hypercalcemia. [1] *Idiopathic parathyroid hyperplasia* - **Idiopathic parathyroid hyperplasia** is responsible for about **10-15% of cases** of primary hyperparathyroidism, making it less common than adenomas. - In hyperplasia, **all four parathyroid glands** are typically enlarged and overactive, unlike the localized growth in an adenoma. *Familial hyperparathyroidism* - **Familial hyperparathyroidism** is a rare cause, accounting for **less than 1% of cases**, and is often associated with genetic syndromes like **MEN1** or **MEN2A**. - It involves inherited genetic mutations that predispose individuals to parathyroid gland overactivity, which distinguishes it from sporadic causes. *Primary parathyroid carcinoma* - **Primary parathyroid carcinoma** is an **extremely rare malignancy**, accounting for **less than 1%** of all primary hyperparathyroidism cases. - While it causes severe hypercalcemia, its rarity means it is not the commonest cause.

Question 2: In a 30-year-old male smoker, the commonest cause of dry gangrene of foot will be

A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Embolism
C. Atherosclerosis
D. Buerger's disease (Correct Answer)

Explanation: Buerger's disease - **Buerger's disease** (**thromboangiitis obliterans**) is strongly associated with **heavy smoking** and typically affects young to middle-aged adult males, leading to dry gangrene in the extremities. - It involves **inflammation and thrombosis** of small and medium-sized arteries and veins, predominantly in the limbs, often manifesting as **ischemic pain**, ulcerations, and gangrene. *Diabetes mellitus* - While **diabetes** can cause dry gangrene due to **peripheral artery disease** and small vessel disease, it is more commonly associated with **wet gangrene** due to increased infection risk, and the age and smoking history point away from it being the *commonest* cause in this specific demographic for dry gangrene [1]. - Diabetic neuropathy can also mask symptoms, leading to delayed presentation and worsening tissue damage [1]. *Embolism* - An **embolic event** would typically present with **sudden onset** severe pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, and paralysis (the "6 Ps"), leading to acute limb ischemia rather than the progressive dry gangrene described implied in the question. - While it can cause tissue necrosis, it's usually an acute event rather than a chronic process leading to gradual gangrene. *Atherosclerosis* - While **atherosclerosis** is a significant cause of peripheral artery disease and gangrene, especially in smokers, it typically affects an **older population** than the 30-year-old male described [2]. - In younger smokers with gangrene, **Buerger's disease** is a more specific and common diagnosis, as atherosclerosis tends to manifest later in life unless other significant risk factors are present [2].

Pharmacology

1 questions

Which of the following statements is true about antibiotic therapy?

Physiology

1 questions

The central venous pressure (CVP) is low in

Surgery

5 questions

The term "debridement of the wound" refers to

Which of the following statements is true regarding wound contracture ?

The scolicidal agents used in the surgery of a hydatid cyst include all of the following except

Which one of the following is an example of a chemodectoma ?

The following are the indications for carrying out a sympathectomy except

UPSC-CMS 2012 - Surgery UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1: The term "debridement of the wound" refers to

A. Irrigation and cleaning of the wound
B. Laying open all layers of the wound and excision of the devitalized tissue (Correct Answer)
C. Closure of wound in layers
D. Clean excision of at least 1 mm of skin from the edge of the wound

Explanation: ***Laying open all layers of the wound and excision of the devitalized tissue*** - **Debridement** specifically involves surgically removing **necrotic (devitalized)** or infected tissue from a wound to promote healing. - This process often requires **laying open all layers** to ensure complete removal of contaminated or dead tissue. *Irrigation and cleaning of the wound* - While **irrigation and cleaning** are components of wound care, they are considered primary steps in **wound prep** and are not synonymous with the complete surgical removal of devitalized tissue. - This option describes a more superficial cleaning rather than the definitive removal of non-viable tissue. *Closure of wound in layers* - **Wound closure in layers** is a step performed *after* debridement and cleaning, as part of the reconstructive phase of wound management. - This refers to the technique used to approximate tissues and is not part of the tissue removal process itself. *Clean excision of at least 1 mm of skin from the edge of the wound* - This describes **wound excision** or **surgical de-epithelialization** which may be performed for specific wound conditions or cosmetic purposes, but not primarily to remove devitalized tissue from the wound bed. - The focus here is on healthy tissue at the wound margins, not the non-viable tissue within the wound.

Question 2: Which of the following statements is true regarding wound contracture ?

A. Bacterial colonization of a wound slows the process of contraction
B. It may account for a 40% decrease in the size of a wound
C. It is a primary process affecting the closure of sutured wounds
D. It is the function of specialised fibroblasts that contain actin myofilaments (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***It is the function of specialised fibroblasts that contain actin myofilaments*** - Wound contracture is primarily mediated by **myofibroblasts**, which are specialized fibroblasts containing **actin myofilaments**. - These cells exert contractile force, pulling the wound edges together to reduce wound size. *Bacterial colonization of a wound slows the process of contraction* - **Bacterial colonization** and infection typically **impair** or **delay** wound healing, including contracture, due to inflammation and tissue damage. - A healthy, sterile wound environment encourages optimal contraction. *It may account for a 40% decrease in the size of a wound* - Wound contracture can lead to a much greater reduction in wound size, often exceeding **40%**, with some studies suggesting up to **90%** for full-thickness wounds. - The extent of contracture depends on the size, location, and depth of the wound. *It is a primary process affecting the closure of sutured wounds* - Wound contracture is a more significant mechanism for **secondary intention healing** (wounds left open to heal by granulation and epithelialization). - For **sutured wounds (primary intention)**, closure is primarily achieved by direct apposition and sealing of the wound edges; contracture plays a minor role.

Question 3: The scolicidal agents used in the surgery of a hydatid cyst include all of the following except

A. 15% glutaraldehyde (Correct Answer)
B. Absolute alcohol
C. 0.5% silver nitrate
D. 20% (hypertonic) saline

Explanation: ***15% glutaraldehyde*** - **15% glutaraldehyde** is NOT a standard scolicidal agent used during hydatid cyst surgery. - While glutaraldehyde is an effective disinfectant and sterilizing agent, it is **not routinely used as a scolicidal agent** in hydatid cyst surgery. - It is **highly toxic to tissues** and can cause severe local damage, making it unsuitable for intraoperative use in the peritoneal cavity. - Standard scolicidal agents are safer and more established for this specific purpose. *Absolute alcohol* - **Absolute alcohol (95-100% ethanol)** is an effective scolicidal agent used in hydatid cyst surgery. - It kills protoscolices rapidly and has documented efficacy in preventing **secondary hydatidosis**. - While it can be irritating to tissues, it is still employed clinically with appropriate precautions to minimize spillage. *0.5% silver nitrate* - **0.5% silver nitrate** solution is an effective scolicidal agent that causes disruption of the scolex membranes. - It has been shown to kill scolices and reduce the risk of **secondary hydatidosis**. - It is one of the established agents used in hydatid cyst surgery. *20% (hypertonic) saline* - **Hypertonic saline (20%)** is the **most widely used** scolicidal agent due to its osmotic effect, which causes scolices to rupture. - It is **relatively safe** and highly effective, making it the preferred choice in most surgical protocols. - Spillage should still be minimized to avoid complications like hypernatremia or electrolyte imbalance.

Question 4: Which one of the following is an example of a chemodectoma ?

A. Cock's peculiar tumour
B. Cystosarcoma phylloides
C. Keratoacanthoma
D. Carotid body tumour (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Carotid body tumour*** - A **carotid body tumour** is a rare, usually benign, neuroendocrine tumour that arises from the **chemoreceptor cells (paraganglia)** of the carotid body. - These tumours are also known as **paragangliomas** and are classic examples of chemodectomas. *Cock's peculiar tumour* - **Cock's peculiar tumour** is a historical term for a **sebaceous cyst** that has undergone inflammation and potential infection, often presenting as a chronic, indurated lesion. - It is a benign adnexal tumour of the skin and does not arise from chemoreceptor cells. *Cystosarcoma phylloides* - **Cystosarcoma phylloides** (Phyllodes tumour) is a rare fibroepithelial tumour of the breast, characterized by both epithelial and stromal components arranged in leaf-like patterns. - It varies in its malignant potential but is distinct from neuroendocrine tumours. *Keratoacanthoma* - A **keratoacanthoma** is a rapidly growing, usually benign, cutaneous tumour that mimics squamous cell carcinoma. - It originates from the hair follicle epithelium and is characterized by a central keratin plug, not neuroendocrine tissue.

Question 5: The following are the indications for carrying out a sympathectomy except

A. Causalgia
B. Hyperhidrosis
C. Venous ulcer of leg (Correct Answer)
D. Raynaud's disease

Explanation: ***Venous ulcer of leg*** - Sympathectomy aims to reduce **vasoconstriction** and improve blood flow, but venous ulcers are primarily caused by **venous insufficiency** and stasis, not arterial spasm. - While improved microcirculation might be a minor benefit, it is not a primary indication for sympathectomy, as the underlying problem is venous, requiring different treatments like compression and elevation. *Causalgia* - **Causalgia (Complex Regional Pain Syndrome type II)** is characterized by severe burning pain, hyperalgesia, and allodynia, often with vasomotor dysfunction. - Sympathectomy can relieve the pain by interrupting the **sympathetic efferent nerves** that contribute to the pain and vasomotor changes. *Hyperhidrosis* - **Hyperhidrosis** is a condition of excessive sweating, mostly localized to the hands, feet, or axillae. - Sympathectomy, particularly **endoscopic thoracic sympathectomy (ETS)**, is an effective treatment for severe localized hyperhidrosis by disrupting the sympathetic nerve supply to the sweat glands. *Raynaud's disease* - **Raynaud's disease** involves episodic digital ischemia due to exaggerated vasoconstriction of peripheral arteries, often triggered by cold or stress. - Sympathectomy can reduce the frequency and severity of vasospastic attacks by interrupting the **vasoconstrictor sympathetic fibers** to the affected digits.

About UPSC-CMS 2012 Questions

This page contains 109 questions from the UPSC-CMS 2012 paper, organised across 15 subjects for focused practice. Every question comes with the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the underlying concept. Subject-wise organisation lets you target specific areas and identify which topics carried the most weight in this particular year.

Practising year-wise papers is essential for understanding how the UPSC-CMS exam evolves — you can spot trending topics, gauge difficulty shifts, and benchmark your readiness against a real paper. To take your preparation further, download the Oncourse app for AI-driven performance insights, spaced repetition of questions you got wrong, and a personalised study plan built around your UPSC-CMS goals.