NEET-PG 2024 Practice Questions

Q: A patient does not understand the meaning of the doctor's words. What type of barrier does this represent?

Linguistic. ***Linguistic*** - This barrier occurs when there is a **lack of shared language** or when an individual does not understand the specific **vocabulary or jargon** being used. - In a medical context, this often manifests as a patient not understanding complex medical terms or explanations. *Cultural* - This barrier arises from differences in **beliefs, values, customs, or social norms** between individuals. - It would involve misunderstandings based on cultural perspectives rather than the literal meaning of words themselves. *Psychological* - This type of barrier relates to the emotional or mental state of the individuals involved, such as **anxiety, fear, or a lack of attention**. - While emotional factors can affect understanding, the core issue described here is specifically about the comprehension of words. *Environmental* - This barrier refers to **physical distractions or unsuitable surroundings** that hinder effective communication. - Examples include noise, inadequate privacy, or uncomfortable settings, which are not suggested by the patient's inability to understand the doctor's words. *Physical* - This barrier involves **sensory impairments** such as hearing loss, visual deficits, or speech difficulties. - While physical impairments can affect communication, the scenario describes comprehension of word meaning rather than sensory limitations.

Q: A patient with homocystinuria presents with ectopia lentis (dislocation of the lens). Which vitamin should be supplemented?

Vitamin B6. ***Vitamin B6*** - Many cases of **homocystinuria** are due to a deficiency in **cystathionine beta-synthase (CBS)**, an enzyme that requires **pyridoxal phosphate (active B6)** as a cofactor. - Supplementing with **high doses of vitamin B6** can significantly improve outcomes in patients with **B6-responsive homocystinuria** by increasing residual CBS enzyme activity. *Vitamin B12* - While vitamin B12 (cobalamin) is a cofactor for **methionine synthase**, an enzyme involved in homocysteine metabolism, it is not the primary treatment for **homocystinuria due to CBS deficiency**. - B12 deficiency can lead to increased homocysteine levels, but B12 supplementation alone will not address the underlying enzyme defect in most cases of homocystinuria. *Thiamine* - **Thiamine (Vitamin B1)** is essential for carbohydrate metabolism and nerve function, but it has no direct role in the metabolic pathway involved in homocystinuria. - Thiamine deficiency causes **beriberi** and **Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome**, symptoms distinctly different from homocystinuria. *Vitamin B9 (Folate)* - **Folate** is a cofactor for **methionine synthase**, working alongside vitamin B12 to convert homocysteine back to methionine. - While folate deficiency can contribute to hyperhomocysteinemia, it is not the primary therapeutic intervention for homocystinuria caused by **CBS deficiency**. *Vitamin C* - **Vitamin C (ascorbic acid)** is important for collagen synthesis and acts as an antioxidant, but it has no role in homocysteine metabolism or the treatment of homocystinuria. - Vitamin C deficiency causes **scurvy**, which presents with bleeding gums, petechiae, and poor wound healing—completely unrelated to homocystinuria.

Q: Which of the following foods should be consumed to prevent thiamine deficiency?

Whole grain cereals and legumes. ***Whole grain cereals and legumes*** - **Whole grain cereals** (brown rice, oats, wheat germ, fortified cereals) and **legumes** (beans, lentils, peas) are **excellent natural sources of thiamine (vitamin B1)** - They retain the **bran and germ** layers where thiamine is concentrated - Regular consumption effectively prevents **thiamine deficiency** and associated conditions like beriberi and Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome - This is the **primary dietary recommendation** for thiamine adequacy *Polished white rice* - Polished white rice has the **bran and germ removed** during processing, eliminating most of the thiamine content - Consuming polished white rice as a staple **causes thiamine deficiency**, leading to **beriberi** (common in populations with rice-based diets) - Unless fortified with thiamine, polished white rice contributes to deficiency rather than preventing it *Dairy products and eggs* - While nutritious, dairy products and eggs contain **relatively low amounts of thiamine** - Not reliable sources for meeting daily thiamine requirements - Contribute to overall nutrition but insufficient alone to prevent thiamine deficiency *Fresh fruits and vegetables* - Most fruits and vegetables contain **modest amounts of thiamine** compared to whole grains - Some exceptions include peas, asparagus, and Brussels sprouts, but typical servings provide limited thiamine - Important for overall health but not primary thiamine sources *Red meat and poultry* - Pork is actually a **good source of thiamine**, particularly organ meats - However, **whole grains and legumes** remain the most reliable and accessible plant-based sources - Red meat and poultry provide moderate thiamine but are not the best answer for preventing deficiency in general populations

Q: A study recorded the survival times (in months) of 8 patients diagnosed with pancreatic cancer who received a new chemotherapy regimen. The survival times were: 2, 3, 4, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 months. What is the median survival time for these patients?

4.5. ***4.5*** - The given survival times are already ordered: 2, 3, 4, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8. - Since there is an **even number of observations (n=8)**, the median is the average of the two middle values, which are the 4th and 5th values. (4 + 5) / 2 = **4.5**. *3.5* - This value would result from incorrectly averaging the 3rd and 4th observations (3 + 4) / 2 = 3.5. - This error occurs when miscounting the middle positions in an even-numbered dataset. *4.0* - This value represents the **fourth observation** in the ordered list, not the true median for an even number of data points. - While it is one of the middle values, the median for an even dataset requires averaging the two middle-most values. *5.0* - This value represents the **fifth observation** in the ordered list, not the true median for an even number of data points. - It would be the median if the dataset contained an odd number of observations and 5 was the middle term. *5.5* - This value would be the mean of 5 and 6, which are the 5th and 6th values, not the correct middle values. - This calculation does not represent the correct methodology for finding the median in this dataset.

Q: A group of 80 people is being studied to determine the effect of diet modification on cholesterol levels. To compare the mean cholesterol levels before and after the diet modification in this group, which statistical test should be used?

Paired t-test. ***Paired t-test*** - A **paired t-test** is appropriate for comparing means from two related samples, such as "before" and "after" measurements on the **same individuals**. - It assesses whether there is a statistically significant difference between these **dependent observations**. *Independent t-test* - The independent t-test compares means between **two separate groups** (unrelated samples). - It is inappropriate here because we have **paired data** from the same individuals measured twice, not two independent groups. *McNemar test* - The McNemar test is used for comparing **paired nominal data**, typically in a 2×2 table, for example, before-after changes in a proportion or categorical outcome. - It is not suitable for **continuous data** like cholesterol levels. *Chi-square test* - The chi-square test is used to assess the association between **two categorical variables** or to compare observed frequencies with expected frequencies. - It is not designed for comparing means of **continuous variables** in paired samples. *Wilcoxon signed-rank test* - The Wilcoxon signed-rank test is a **non-parametric alternative to the paired t-test**, used when the data are not normally distributed or when the sample size is small. - While it's used for paired data, the paired t-test is generally preferred when parametric assumptions (like **normality**) can be met, especially with a sample size of 80.

Q: A study was undertaken to establish the relationship between the consumption of a vegetarian or non-vegetarian diet and the presence of diseases. Which statistical test should be used?

Chi-square test. ***Chi-square test*** - The **chi-square test** is appropriate when analyzing the relationship between two **categorical variables**. In this scenario, "diet type" (vegetarian/non-vegetarian) and "presence of disease" (yes/no) are both categorical variables. - This test determines if there is a statistically significant association between the frequency counts of these two variables in a contingency table. *T-test* - A **t-test** is used to compare the **means** of two groups, typically when the dependent variable is continuous. - This test is unsuitable here because the presence of disease and diet type are categorical, not continuous, variables. *ANOVA* - **ANOVA** (Analysis of Variance) is used to compare the **means** of three or more groups, often with a continuous dependent variable. - Similar to the t-test, ANOVA is not applicable as the study involves categorical variables, not the comparison of means across multiple groups. *Fisher's exact test* - **Fisher's exact test** is similar to the chi-square test but specifically used for **small sample sizes** where the expected frequencies in any cell of the contingency table are less than 5. - While it analyzes categorical data, the chi-square test is the more general and commonly preferred test for larger sample sizes, which is generally assumed unless otherwise specified. *Mann-Whitney U test* - The **Mann-Whitney U test** is a non-parametric test used to compare differences between two independent groups when the dependent variable is **ordinal or continuous** but not normally distributed. - This test is not appropriate for analyzing the association between two categorical variables, as it requires at least one variable to have ranked or continuous data.

Q: Which of the following diseases has the largest submerged portion in the iceberg model of disease?

Influenza. **The Iceberg Model of Disease** represents the concept that for many diseases, only a small portion of cases (the "tip" above water) are clinically apparent and reported, while a much larger portion (the "submerged" part) consists of asymptomatic, subclinical, or undiagnosed cases. ***Influenza*** - Has the **largest submerged portion** among the given options, with **50-75% of infections being asymptomatic or mild** and going undiagnosed - High transmissibility and varied clinical presentation contribute to significant hidden burden - Only severe cases requiring hospitalization typically get reported, representing just the "tip of the iceberg" - Classic example of diseases with large subclinical-to-clinical ratio *Chickenpox* - Most cases are **clinically apparent** with characteristic vesicular rash - Asymptomatic infections are rare due to distinctive clinical features - High visibility of cases reduces the submerged portion significantly *Tetanus* - **Severe, acute neurological condition** with distinct clinical manifestations (trismus, risus sardonicus, opisthotonus) - Almost all cases are diagnosed due to dramatic presentation - Virtually no submerged portion - what exists clinically is recognized *Rabies* - **Nearly uniformly fatal** once symptoms appear, making all symptomatic cases clinically evident - No asymptomatic or mild phase after symptom onset - Minimal to no submerged portion in the iceberg model

Q: A baby presents with hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications, and chorioretinitis. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Toxoplasmosis. **Toxoplasmosis** - The classic triad of **hydrocephalus**, **intracranial calcifications**, and **chorioretinitis** is highly characteristic of congenital toxoplasmosis. - These findings result from the parasite's invasive nature and predilection for the central nervous system and eyes of the developing fetus. - Calcifications in toxoplasmosis are typically **diffuse and scattered** throughout the brain parenchyma. *Syphilis* - Congenital syphilis typically presents with **rhinitis**, **skin rash**, **hepatosplenomegaly**, and **bone abnormalities** (e.g., periostitis, saber shins). - While neurological complications can occur, the specific triad of hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications, and chorioretinitis is not characteristic. *Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection* - Congenital CMV can cause **periventricular calcifications** (not diffuse calcifications), **microcephaly**, and **sensorineural hearing loss**. - While chorioretinitis can occur, hydrocephalus is less frequent, and the calcification pattern differs from toxoplasmosis (CMV shows periventricular pattern vs. diffuse in toxoplasmosis). *Rubella* - Congenital rubella syndrome is known for causing the classic triad of **cataracts**, **sensorineural hearing loss**, and **congenital heart defects** (e.g., patent ductus arteriosus, pulmonary artery stenosis). - Intracranial calcifications and hydrocephalus are not typical presentations of congenital rubella. *Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) infection* - Neonatal HSV typically presents with **vesicular skin lesions**, **encephalitis**, and **disseminated disease** affecting liver and lungs. - While HSV can cause encephalitis with brain involvement, the classic triad of hydrocephalus, diffuse intracranial calcifications, and chorioretinitis is not characteristic of HSV infection.

Q: A mother delivers in a rural area under the guidance of a skilled care attendant. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the care provided by the skilled care attendant at birth?

Bathe the baby with warm water. ***Bathe the baby with warm water*** - **Delaying the first bath** for at least 6-24 hours after birth is recommended to prevent **hypothermia** and promote **skin-to-skin contact** for bonding and breastfeeding. - Early bathing can remove **vernix caseosa**, which provides natural antimicrobial protection and moisturization to the newborn's skin. *Start breastfeeding as early as possible* - **Early initiation of breastfeeding**, ideally within the first hour of birth, is crucial for both mother and baby. - It promotes **uterine contractions** to prevent **postpartum hemorrhage** and provides the newborn with **colostrum**, rich in antibodies. *Cover the baby's head and body* - Covering the newborn's head and body is essential to prevent **heat loss** and maintain a stable **body temperature**, immediately after birth. - Newborns are highly susceptible to **hypothermia** due to their large surface area to mass ratio and immature thermoregulation. *Clear the eyes with a sterile swab* - Clearing the newborn's eyes with a sterile swab is a standard part of immediate newborn care to remove any **mucus or blood** that might have entered during delivery. - This helps prevent **ophthalmia neonatorum**, especially if the mother has an infection like gonorrhea or chlamydia. *Dry the baby thoroughly and stimulate breathing* - **Drying the baby immediately** after birth is a critical first step in newborn resuscitation and care. - It helps prevent **hypothermia** and provides **tactile stimulation** to initiate breathing and crying, which is essential for transitioning from fetal to neonatal circulation.

Q: Which of the following options shows the correct sequence?

***This question cannot be answered without the accompanying image.*** The question asks to identify the correct sequence, with options showing different arrangements of items labeled 1, 2, 3, and 4. However, the image that should display these items is missing from the question data. **To complete this question, the following is required:** - The source image showing the physiological structures, processes, or events labeled as 1, 2, 3, and 4 - Once the image is available, the correct sequence can be determined - The explanation should then detail why the correct sequence is accurate based on physiological principles **Common NEET-PG sequence questions in General Physiology include:** - Steps in action potential generation - Stages of muscle contraction - Sequence of events in synaptic transmission - Steps in cellular transport mechanisms - Phases of cardiac cycle *This question requires image data to be valid and answerable.*

Question 1

A patient does not understand the meaning of the doctor's words. What type of barrier does this represent?

Accepted Answer

Linguistic

Answer

Cultural

Answer

Psychological

Answer

Environmental

Answer

Physical

Question 2

A patient with homocystinuria presents with ectopia lentis (dislocation of the lens). Which vitamin should be supplemented?

Accepted Answer

Vitamin B6

Answer

Vitamin B12

Answer

Thiamine

Answer

Vitamin B9 (Folate)

Answer

Vitamin C

Question 3

Which of the following foods should be consumed to prevent thiamine deficiency?

Accepted Answer

Whole grain cereals and legumes

Answer

Dairy products and eggs

Answer

Fresh fruits and vegetables

Answer

Polished white rice

Answer

Red meat and poultry

Question 4

A study recorded the survival times (in months) of 8 patients diagnosed with pancreatic cancer who received a new chemotherapy regimen. The survival times were: 2, 3, 4, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 months. What is the median survival time for these patients?

Accepted Answer

4.5

Answer

4.0

Answer

5.0

Answer

5.5

Answer

3.5

Question 5

A group of 80 people is being studied to determine the effect of diet modification on cholesterol levels. To compare the mean cholesterol levels before and after the diet modification in this group, which statistical test should be used?

Accepted Answer

Paired t-test

Answer

McNemar test

Answer

Chi-square test

Answer

Wilcoxon signed-rank test

Answer

Independent t-test

Question 6

A study was undertaken to establish the relationship between the consumption of a vegetarian or non-vegetarian diet and the presence of diseases. Which statistical test should be used?

Accepted Answer

Chi-square test

Answer

T-test

Answer

ANOVA

Answer

Fisher's exact test

Answer

Mann-Whitney U test

Question 7

Which of the following diseases has the largest submerged portion in the iceberg model of disease?

Accepted Answer

Influenza

Answer

Chickenpox

Answer

Tetanus

Answer

Rabies

Question 8

A baby presents with hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications, and chorioretinitis. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Toxoplasmosis

Answer

Syphilis

Answer

Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection

Answer

Rubella

Answer

Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) infection

Question 9

A mother delivers in a rural area under the guidance of a skilled care attendant. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the care provided by the skilled care attendant at birth?

Accepted Answer

Bathe the baby with warm water

Answer

Start breastfeeding as early as possible

Answer

Cover the baby's head and body

Answer

Clear the eyes with a sterile swab

Answer

Dry the baby thoroughly and stimulate breathing

Question 10

Which of the following options shows the correct sequence?

Answer

$1 \rightarrow 2 \rightarrow 3 \rightarrow 4$

Answer

$2 \rightarrow 1 \rightarrow 3 \rightarrow 4$

Answer

$1 \rightarrow 3 \rightarrow 2 \rightarrow 4$

Answer

$3 \rightarrow 1 \rightarrow 2 \rightarrow 4$

NEET-PG 2024

Behavioral Science

Biochemistry

Biostatistics

Community Medicine

Pediatrics

Physiology