NEET-PG 2019 Practice Questions

Q: Identify the marked structure in the image.

Cerebellum. ***Cerebellum*** - The image points to the distinct, posterior inferior structure of the brain, characterized by its **folia** and arbour-vitae-like internal structure, which is the cerebellum. - The cerebellum is primarily involved in **motor control**, including coordination, precision, and accurate timing. *Cerebrum* - The cerebrum is the **largest part of the brain**, located superiorly, responsible for higher functions like thought, voluntary movement, and sensory processing. - It consists of two hemispheres connected by the corpus callosum and is characterized by its **gyri** and **sulci**. *Brain stem* - The brain stem is located inferior to the cerebrum and anterior to the cerebellum, connecting the cerebrum and cerebellum to the **spinal cord**. - It controls vital functions such as **breathing**, heart rate, and sleep, and is composed of the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata. *Corpus callosum* - The corpus callosum is a large, C-shaped nerve fiber bundle located deep within the brain, under the cerebral cortex. - Its primary function is to **connect the two cerebral hemispheres**, facilitating communication between them.

Q: IV administration of which anesthetic drug is most painful among the following?

Propofol. ***Propofol*** - **Propofol** is notoriously known for causing **significant pain on injection** due to its formulation with **soybean oil emulsion** and its direct irritation of venous free nerve endings. - This pain is often described as a **burning sensation** and can be severe enough to require pre-treatment with lidocaine or administering it in a larger vein. *Methohexital* - While **methohexital** can cause localized pain and sometimes **thrombophlebitis** during intravenous administration, it is generally considered less painful than propofol. - It is a **barbiturate** and its discomfort is typically related to its alkaline pH and potential for venous irritation. *Ketamine* - **Ketamine** typically causes **minimal pain on injection** when administered intravenously. - Its mechanism of action as an **NMDA receptor antagonist** does not generally involve direct irritation of venous endothelium in the same way as propofol. *Etomidate* - **Etomidate**, like methohexital, can cause some **pain and irritation on injection**, and poses a risk of **thrombophlebitis**. - However, the severity of pain is generally **less pronounced** compared to the distinct and often intense burning sensation associated with propofol.

Q: All of the following are examples of Dietary fibre except for which of the following?

Starch. ***Correct: Starch*** - **Starch** is a **polysaccharide** that serves as a **storage carbohydrate** in plants and is readily digestible by human enzymes, breaking down into glucose. - While it's a carbohydrate found in plant foods, it does not fit the definition of dietary fibre which is generally resistant to human digestive enzymes. *Incorrect: Pectin* - **Pectin** is a type of **soluble dietary fibre** found in fruits, particularly apples and citrus. - It forms a gel in water, contributing to satiety and helping to **lower cholesterol** and **regulate blood sugar**. *Incorrect: Lignin* - **Lignin** is a **non-carbohydrate dietary fibre** that provides structural support in plants. - It is an **insoluble fibre** and is resistant to breakdown by digestive enzymes, aiding in bulk formation in stool. *Incorrect: Cellulose* - **Cellulose** is a major component of **plant cell walls** and is a type of **insoluble dietary fibre**. - It adds bulk to stool, promoting regularity and preventing constipation.

Q: In which condition are solitary lytic lesions typically seen?

Multiple myeloma. ***Multiple myeloma*** - **Solitary lytic lesions**, also known as **"punched-out" lesions**, are a classic radiographic finding in multiple myeloma due to **plasma cell proliferation** in the bone [1]. - Patients often have **elevated serum proteins** and show signs of **renal impairment** and anemia, alongside these bone lesions [1]. *Atherosclerosis* - Primarily affects **blood vessels**, leading to plaque formation, and does not cause **lytic bone lesions**. - Clinical manifestations focus on **cardiovascular disease** rather than bone abnormalities. *Mitral stenosis* - Affects the **heart valves** and results in **heart failure** symptoms rather than causing lytic lesions in bones. - Clinical findings include **dyspnea** and signs of **pulmonary congestion**, which are unrelated to bone pathology. *Osteoblast* - Osteoblasts are **bone-forming cells**, and while they may be involved in certain bone diseases, they do not create **solitary lytic lesions**. - Lytic lesions typically arise from **osteoclast activity** or **tumor infiltration**, not from osteoblastic processes [1].

Q: Which of the following statements about deep venous thrombosis (DVT) is incorrect?

Mostly bilateral. ***Mostly bilateral*** - DVT is typically **unilateral**, affecting one limb [2]. Bilateral DVT is less common, making this statement incorrect [2]. - The symptoms of **pain, swelling, and tenderness** are usually localized to one leg [1]. *Most common clinically presents as pain and tenderness in calf* - **Calf pain and tenderness** are common clinical presentations of DVT, especially in the lower extremities [1]. - Other common signs include **swelling, warmth, and redness** in the affected leg [1]. *Some cases may directly present as pulmonary thromboembolism* - A significant concern with DVT is that a **clot can dislodge** and travel to the lungs, causing a **pulmonary embolism (PE)**, which can be the initial presentation [1]. - PE is a potentially life-threatening complication and may present with **dyspnea, chest pain, and hemoptysis**. *Clinical assessment highly reliable* - **Clinical assessment alone is not highly reliable** for diagnosing DVT due to its variable and often non-specific presentation [2]. - A definitive diagnosis usually requires objective diagnostic tests such as **compression ultrasonography** or **D-dimer assay** [3].

Q: What are the essential major blood culture criteria for diagnosing infective endocarditis?

Single positive culture of Coxiella burnetii. ***Single positive culture of Coxiella burnetii*** - A single positive blood culture for **Coxiella burnetii** or **anti-phase I IgG antibody titer > 1:800** is considered a major criterion for infective endocarditis due to its highly pathogenic nature in this context [1], [2]. - This organism is a known cause of **culture-negative endocarditis**, and specific serology or molecular tests are often required for diagnosis [1]. *Single positive culture of Corynebacterium species* - **Corynebacterium species** are often considered **contaminants** in blood cultures, especially *Corynebacterium jeikeium*, and typically require multiple positive cultures, often from different sites, to be considered significant pathogens for infective endocarditis [2]. - A single positive culture of these organisms alone is generally insufficient to meet major diagnostic criteria for endocarditis [2]. *Both HACEK and Coxiella cultures* - While both **HACEK organisms** and **Coxiella burnetii** can cause endocarditis, the combination of both is not a specific major criterion in itself. - The diagnostic criteria address each organism individually [2]. *Single positive culture of HACEK group* - **HACEK organisms** (**H**aemophilus, **A**ggregatibacter, **C**ardiobacterium, **E**ikenella, **K**ingella) are well-known causes of endocarditis, but usually require **two separate positive blood cultures** for infective endocarditis major criteria [2]. - A single positive culture of a HACEK organism is typically classified as a minor criterion unless other supporting evidence is present.

Q: PGF2 alpha maximum dose in PPH is-

2 mg. ***2 mg*** - The maximum recommended total dose of **PGF2 alpha** (Carboprost/Hemabate) for postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is **2 mg**. - This limit is typically reached after administering eight doses of 250 µg each. *1000 µg* - This is equivalent to **1 mg**, which is only half of the maximum recommended total dose for PGF2 alpha in PPH. - While individual doses are 250 µg, the cumulative maximum dose is higher. *200 µg* - This dosage is **lower than the standard individual dose** of 250 µg for PGF2 alpha in PPH. - Administering only 200 µg would be suboptimal for managing severe hemorrhage. *20 mg* - This dose is **ten times the maximum recommended total dose** of 2 mg for PGF2 alpha. - Administering 20 mg could lead to severe adverse effects and toxicity.

Q: In which condition is a Cushing ulcer most likely to occur?

Head injury. ***Head injury*** - A **Cushing ulcer** is a specific type of **stress ulcer** that is a common complication of **severe head trauma** or other central nervous system injuries [1]. - The pathogenesis involves increased **intracranial pressure (ICP)**, leading to stimulation of the vagus nerve, which in turn causes increased **gastric acid secretion** and potential ulcer formation [1]. *Burns* - **Burns** can cause another type of stress ulcer known as a **Curling ulcer**, which is associated with hypovolemia and ischemia, not directly with head injury [1]. - While both are stress-induced ulcers, their underlying mechanisms and inciting events differ [1]. *Cell necrosis* - **Cell necrosis** is a general term for cell death and is not a direct cause of a Cushing ulcer. - While cell death may occur in various conditions, it does not specifically lead to the gastric ulceration seen in Cushing's phenomenon. *Stress* - While a Cushing ulcer is a type of **stress ulcer**, "stress" alone is too general an answer. - The precise mechanism for a Cushing ulcer involves the neurological effects of a head injury leading to increased vagal stimulation and gastric acid production, making "head injury" a more specific and accurate answer.

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding delusional disorder?

Held with absolute conviction. ***Held with absolute conviction*** - This is the **BEST ANSWER** as it describes a **core diagnostic criterion** for delusions in delusional disorder per DSM-5/ICD-11. - Delusions are defined as **fixed, false beliefs held with absolute conviction** despite clear evidence to the contrary. - This unwavering certainty is what distinguishes delusions from overvalued ideas or normal beliefs. - This statement captures the fundamental **nature and defining characteristic** of the disorder itself. *More commonly occurs in middle to late adulthood* - This statement is **factually TRUE** - delusional disorder typically has onset between ages 40-55 (middle to late adulthood). - However, this describes **epidemiological data** (when it occurs), not a defining feature of the disorder. - While accurate, it is less fundamental than the absolute conviction which is a **diagnostic criterion**. *Often not amenable to reasoning* - This statement is also **factually TRUE** - patients with delusional disorder cannot be reasoned out of their false beliefs. - However, this is a **consequence** of the absolute conviction, not the primary defining feature. - The inability to respond to reasoning stems from the unwavering belief system. *Occurs at early age* - This is **FALSE** - delusional disorder is rare in early age. - Typical onset is in **middle to late adulthood** (ages 40-55), not childhood or adolescence. - Early onset would be atypical for this disorder.

Q: Identify the radiological procedure shown in the image?

Barium meal follow through. ***Barium meal follow through*** - The image shows opacification of the stomach and the entire small bowel loops via oral uptake of a contrast agent, which is characteristic of a **barium meal follow-through**. - This procedure tracks the passage of **barium** from the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum, through the jejunum and ileum, to assess the **small intestine's morphology and function**. *Barium enema* - A **barium enema** involves introducing contrast material rectally to visualize the **colon and rectum**, which is not depicted in this image. - The primary structures opacified in a barium enema are the **large intestine**, not the stomach and small bowel as seen here. *Enteroclysis* - **Enteroclysis** is a specialized study of the small bowel where contrast is directly instilled into the **duodenum** or **proximal jejunum** via a nasoenteric tube. - While it visualizes the small bowel, the image shows oral contrast progression from the stomach, not direct jejunal intubation. *Proctography* - **Proctography**, also known as defecography, is a dynamic study focused specifically on the **rectum and anal canal** during defecation. - This procedure is highly specific to the distal gastrointestinal tract for assessing anorectal function and does not visualize the stomach or extensive small bowel loops.

Question 1

Identify the marked structure in the image.

Accepted Answer

Cerebellum

Answer

Cerebrum

Answer

Brain stem

Answer

Corpus callosum

Question 2

IV administration of which anesthetic drug is most painful among the following?

Accepted Answer

Propofol

Answer

Ketamine

Answer

Etomidate

Answer

Methohexital

Question 3

All of the following are examples of Dietary fibre except for which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Starch

Answer

Pectin

Answer

Lignin

Answer

Cellulose

Question 4

In which condition are solitary lytic lesions typically seen?

Accepted Answer

Multiple myeloma

Answer

Atherosclerosis

Answer

Mitral stenosis

Answer

Osteosarcoma

Question 5

Which of the following statements about deep venous thrombosis (DVT) is incorrect?

Accepted Answer

Mostly bilateral

Answer

Most common clinically presents as pain and tenderness in calf

Answer

Some cases may directly present as pulmonary thromboembolism

Answer

Clinical assessment highly reliable

Question 6

What are the essential major blood culture criteria for diagnosing infective endocarditis?

Accepted Answer

Single positive culture of Coxiella burnetii

Answer

Single positive culture of Corynebacterium species

Answer

Both HACEK and Coxiella cultures

Answer

Single positive culture of HACEK group

Question 7

PGF2 alpha maximum dose in PPH is-

Accepted Answer

2 mg

Answer

200 µg

Answer

20 mg

Answer

1000 µg

Question 8

In which condition is a Cushing ulcer most likely to occur?

Accepted Answer

Head injury

Answer

Burns

Answer

Cell necrosis

Answer

Stress

Question 9

Which of the following statements is true regarding delusional disorder?

Accepted Answer

Held with absolute conviction

Answer

Occurs at early age

Answer

More commonly occurs in middle to late adulthood

Answer

Often not amenable to reasoning

Question 10

Identify the radiological procedure shown in the image?

Accepted Answer

Barium meal follow through

Answer

Barium enema

Answer

Enteroclysis

Answer

Proctography

NEET-PG 2019

Anatomy

Anesthesiology

Biochemistry

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pathology

Psychiatry

Radiology