NEET-PG 2012 — Physiology

95 Questions — Page 6 of 10

Q51

Motilin secretion is decreased in which of the following states?

Q52

Which type of carbohydrate is absorbed most efficiently from the gastrointestinal tract?

Q53

What is the average progressive velocity of human sperm under standard laboratory conditions?

Q54

What is the primary physiological effect of increased 2,3-DPG on hemoglobin?

Q55

What does Einthoven's law state regarding the relationship between the electrical potentials of the limb leads?

Q56

Which sensory modalities are most directly affected by lesions of the primary somatosensory cortex?

Q57

Which of the following statements about volume receptors is NOT true?

Q58

What is the normal range for the CSF/plasma glucose ratio?

Q59

Which of the following contains the PRIMARY central chemoreceptors responsible for detecting CO2 and pH changes in cerebrospinal fluid?

Q60

Tetanic contraction is due to accumulation of?

NEET-PG 2012 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 51: Motilin secretion is decreased in which of the following states?

A. Thirsty
B. Starving
C. Ingested meal (Correct Answer)
D. Interdigestive state

Explanation: ***Ingested meal*** - Motilin secretion is **decreased after a meal** due to the presence of food in the small intestine, which stimulates other gastrointestinal hormones and neuronal reflexes that inhibit motilin release. - The primary role of motilin is to stimulate **gastric and intestinal motility** during fasting, clearing residual food and preventing bacterial overgrowth, making its activity counterproductive during digestion. *Thirsty* - **Thirst** is primarily regulated by antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, and it does not directly impact motilin secretion. - Motilin's main function is related to gut motility, largely independent of the body's hydration status. *Starving* - Motilin levels tend to be **higher during fasting or starvation**, as it plays a crucial role in initiating the **migrating motor complex (MMC)**, which sweeps undigested material through the gastrointestinal tract. - This activity prevents bacterial overgrowth and prepares the gut for the next meal; thus, its secretion is increased, not decreased. *Interdigestive state* - The **interdigestive state** refers to the period between meals, which is synonymous with a fasting or starving state. - During this period, motilin secretion is **increased** to stimulate the **migrating motor complex (MMC)**, which is essential for gut cleansing.

Question 52: Which type of carbohydrate is absorbed most efficiently from the gastrointestinal tract?

A. Disaccharides
B. Polysaccharides
C. Monosaccharides (Correct Answer)
D. 5-carbon sugars

Explanation: ***Monosaccharides*** - **Monosaccharides**, like glucose and fructose, are the simplest forms of carbohydrates and do not require further digestion. - They are directly absorbed into the bloodstream from the intestinal lumen via specific **transporters** on the enterocyte membrane. *Disaccharides* - **Disaccharides**, such as sucrose and lactose, must first be broken down into their constituent monosaccharides by **brush border enzymes** (e.g., lactase, sucrase) before absorption can occur. - This additional enzymatic step makes their absorption less efficient than that of monosaccharides. *Polysaccharides* - **Polysaccharides**, including starch and glycogen, are complex carbohydrates requiring extensive digestion by enzymes like **amylase** in the mouth and small intestine. - This multi-step breakdown into monosaccharides is the least efficient process and takes the longest time. *5-carbon sugars* - While 5-carbon sugars (**pentoses**) like ribose and deoxyribose are monosaccharides and can be absorbed, they are not a primary energy source in the diet and are not absorbed as efficiently or in as large quantities as the metabolically more significant 6-carbon monosaccharides (hexoses like glucose). - The question asks which *type* of carbohydrate is most efficiently absorbed, and **monosaccharides** as a general category (including 6-carbon sugars) are the most efficient.

Question 53: What is the average progressive velocity of human sperm under standard laboratory conditions?

A. 1-3 mm/min (Correct Answer)
B. 4-6 mm/min
C. 6-9 mm/min
D. 10-13 mm/min

Explanation: ***1-3 mm/min*** - The typical average progressive velocity of human sperm, categorized as **Grade A (rapid progressive)** motility, ranges from **25 micrometers/second or faster**, which translates to approximately 1-3 mm/minute. - This velocity is crucial for sperm to traverse the female reproductive tract and reach the ovum for fertilization. *4-6 mm/min* - This velocity range is significantly faster than the **average progressive velocity** observed in viable human sperm under standard laboratory conditions. - While some individual sperm may achieve higher speeds, this range is not representative of the **average progressive motility** of a healthy sperm population. *6-9 mm/min* - This progressive velocity is exceptionally high and not typically observed as the average for human sperm, even for highly motile sperm. - Such a high velocity would indicate an **abnormally fast movement** not compatible with biological norms for average progressive motility. *10-13 mm/min* - This range represents an extremely rapid progressive velocity for human sperm, well beyond physiological averages. - It does not align with the standard measurements for **progressive motility**, which are generally much lower.

Question 54: What is the primary physiological effect of increased 2,3-DPG on hemoglobin?

A. Increased affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen
B. Decreased affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen (Correct Answer)
C. Left shift of oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve
D. Right shift of oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve

Explanation: ***Decreased affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen*** - **2,3-Diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG)** binds to the beta subunits of deoxyhemoglobin, stabilizing the **deoxygenated state** and thus **reducing hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen**. - This is the **primary molecular mechanism** by which 2,3-DPG exerts its effect, facilitating **oxygen unloading** in peripheral tissues. - This decreased affinity manifests graphically as a **right shift** in the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve. *Increased affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen* - This is incorrect because 2,3-DPG specifically works to **decrease hemoglobin's affinity** for oxygen, promoting oxygen release. - Increased affinity would mean oxygen is held more tightly, which is counterproductive for **oxygen delivery** to tissues. *Left shift of oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve* - A **left shift** indicates **increased affinity** of hemoglobin for oxygen, meaning oxygen is held more tightly. - Since 2,3-DPG decreases affinity, it causes a **right shift**, not a left shift. *Right shift of oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve* - While this is the **graphical representation** of 2,3-DPG's effect, it is a **consequence** of the primary molecular mechanism (decreased affinity). - A right shift signifies that for any given partial pressure of oxygen, hemoglobin is **less saturated** with oxygen, reflecting the decreased affinity caused by 2,3-DPG binding.

Question 55: What does Einthoven's law state regarding the relationship between the electrical potentials of the limb leads?

A. I + III = II (Correct Answer)
B. I - III = II
C. I + II + III = 0
D. I + III = avL

Explanation: ***I + III = II*** - Einthoven's law describes the relationship between the three **bipolar limb leads** (I, II, and III) in an **electrocardiogram (ECG)**. - It states that the electrical potential of Lead II is equal to the sum of the potentials of Lead I and Lead III (Lead II = Lead I + Lead III). - This can also be expressed as **I + III = II**, which is the **correct mathematical representation** of Einthoven's law. *I - III = II* - This equation is **incorrect** and does not represent Einthoven's law. - The correct relationship involves **addition** of Leads I and III, not subtraction. *I + II + III = 0* - This equation is **incorrect** as written with all positive signs. - Einthoven's law can be rearranged as **I + III - II = 0** (not I + II + III = 0). - The equation shown suggests adding all three leads to get zero, which is **mathematically inconsistent** with the correct formulation (I + III = II). *I + III = avL* - This equation is incorrect and does not relate to Einthoven's law. - **avL (augmented vector left)** is one of the augmented unipolar limb leads calculated as: avL = I - (II/2), not as a direct sum of Leads I and III.

Question 56: Which sensory modalities are most directly affected by lesions of the primary somatosensory cortex?

A. Pain, temperature, and touch
B. Vibration and proprioception
C. Localization and two-point discrimination (Correct Answer)
D. All of the options

Explanation: ***Localization and two-point discrimination*** - Lesions in the **primary somatosensory cortex** (S1) lead to profoundly impaired **discriminative touch**, which includes the ability to precisely localize tactile stimuli and distinguish between two closely spaced points. - These are the **most characteristic deficits** of S1 lesions, representing the cortex's unique role in processing **spatial discrimination and fine sensory analysis**. - S1 is essential for the **integrative functions** that allow precise spatial mapping of sensory inputs. *Pain, temperature, and touch* - Basic touch perception is affected, but **pain and temperature** are primarily mediated by the **spinothalamic tracts** with substantial processing in the thalamus, insular cortex, and anterior cingulate cortex rather than S1. - Crude touch sensation remains relatively preserved with S1 lesions; it is the **discriminative quality** that is lost. - These modalities are NOT the most directly affected by isolated S1 lesions. *Vibration and proprioception* - **Vibration** and **proprioception** are indeed significantly impacted by S1 lesions as S1 receives thalamic projections from the **dorsal column-medial lemniscus (DCML) pathway**. - However, these modalities have substantial **subcortical representation** in the thalamus and can be partially preserved even with cortical damage. - In contrast, **localization and two-point discrimination** are purely cortical functions with no subcortical processing, making them the MOST directly and exclusively dependent on S1 integrity. *All of the options* - This is incorrect because pain and temperature perception is NOT most directly affected by S1 lesions—these are primarily processed by other pathways and cortical areas (spinothalamic system, insular cortex).

Question 57: Which of the following statements about volume receptors is NOT true?

A. They are located in carotid sinus (Correct Answer)
B. They are low pressure receptors
C. They mediate vasopressin release
D. They provide afferents for thirst control

Explanation: ***They are located in carotid sinus*** - Volume receptors, primarily **atrial stretch receptors** and receptors in the **pulmonary vessels**, are located in the low-pressure areas of the circulation, not the carotid sinus. - The carotid sinus primarily contains **baroreceptors** which detect changes in arterial pressure, not blood volume. *They are low pressure receptors* - This statement is true; volume receptors are indeed **low-pressure receptors** found in the atria and great veins. - They primarily monitor **extracellular fluid volume** and central venous pressure. *They provide afferents for thirst control* - This statement is true; when blood volume decreases, the firing rate of these receptors decreases, signaling the **central nervous system** to stimulate thirst. - This is an important mechanism for regulating **fluid intake** and maintaining hydration. *They mediate vasopressin release* - This statement is true; a decrease in blood volume reduces the afferent signaling from volume receptors, which consequently stimulates the release of **vasopressin (ADH)**. - Vasopressin then increases **water reabsorption** in the kidneys to conserve fluid.

Question 58: What is the normal range for the CSF/plasma glucose ratio?

A. 1.2 - 1.6
B. 0.6 - 0.8 (Correct Answer)
C. 0.2 - 0.4
D. 1.0 - 1.2

Explanation: ***Correct: 0.6 - 0.8*** - This ratio indicates that cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) glucose concentration is typically 60-80% of plasma glucose concentration - This range is crucial for identifying metabolic or infectious pathologies affecting the central nervous system - Normal CSF glucose is approximately 50-80 mg/dL when plasma glucose is 70-120 mg/dL *Incorrect: 0.2 - 0.4* - A ratio in this range indicates significantly low CSF glucose, suggesting conditions like bacterial meningitis or hypoglycorrhachia - This is well below the normal physiological proportion of glucose in the CSF relative to plasma - Seen in bacterial/tuberculous meningitis, fungal infections, or malignancy *Incorrect: 1.0 - 1.2* - A CSF/plasma glucose ratio close to or above 1.0 would imply that CSF glucose levels are equal to or higher than plasma levels, which is physiologically impossible under normal conditions - Glucose transport into the CSF is regulated by GLUT-1 transporters and typically results in lower concentrations than in plasma - The blood-brain barrier maintains this gradient *Incorrect: 1.2 - 1.6* - This range is even more exaggerated and physiologically impossible, as CSF glucose cannot exceed plasma glucose in a healthy individual - Such a high ratio would contradict the mechanisms of glucose transport across the blood-brain barrier - Would suggest laboratory error if observed

Question 59: Which of the following contains the PRIMARY central chemoreceptors responsible for detecting CO2 and pH changes in cerebrospinal fluid?

A. Medulla (Correct Answer)
B. Baroreceptors in carotid sinus
C. Peripheral chemoreceptors in carotid bodies
D. All of the above

Explanation: ***Medulla*** - The **medulla oblongata** in the brainstem houses the primary central chemoreceptors. - These chemoreceptors are located on the **ventral surface of the medulla** and are highly sensitive to changes in the **pH of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)**, which is indirectly affected by the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO2) in arterial blood. - CO2 diffuses across the blood-brain barrier, combines with water to form H+ ions, which directly stimulate these central chemoreceptors. *Baroreceptors in carotid sinus* - **Baroreceptors** primarily detect changes in **arterial blood pressure**, not CO2 or pH levels. - They are located in the carotid sinus and aortic arch and are involved in cardiovascular reflexes, not direct chemoreception for respiratory drive. *Peripheral chemoreceptors in carotid bodies* - **Peripheral chemoreceptors** in the carotid bodies (and aortic bodies) detect changes in **arterial blood O2, CO2, and pH**. - However, they are **peripheral**, not central chemoreceptors, and are the primary detectors of **hypoxemia**. - They contribute to respiratory drive but are secondary to central chemoreceptors for CO2 detection. *All of the above* - This option is incorrect because only the **medulla** contains the primary central chemoreceptors for CO2 and pH detection in CSF. - Baroreceptors detect blood pressure, and peripheral chemoreceptors are not central chemoreceptors.

Question 60: Tetanic contraction is due to accumulation of?

A. Na+
B. K+
C. Ca2+ (Correct Answer)
D. Cl-

Explanation: ***Ca2+*** - **Tetanic contraction** results from a rapid succession of muscle stimulations, leading to the sustained elevation of **intracellular calcium (Ca2+)** levels. - This persistent high Ca2+ concentration in the sarcoplasm allows for continuous binding to **troponin**, maintaining the activation of cross-bridge cycling. *Na+* - **Sodium (Na+)** influx is primarily responsible for the **depolarization** of the muscle cell membrane, leading to an **action potential**. - While essential for initiating the contraction, Na+ accumulation itself does not directly cause the sustained high Ca2+ levels characteristic of tetany. *K+* - **Potassium (K+)** efflux is crucial for the **repolarization** of the muscle cell membrane after an action potential. - Accumulation of K+ in the extracellular space can contribute to muscle fatigue and reduce excitability, but it does not directly lead to tetanic contraction. *Cl-* - **Chloride (Cl-)** ions play a significant role in stabilizing the resting membrane potential and contributing to muscle **repolarization**, particularly in skeletal muscle. - While important for muscle function, changes in Cl- concentration do not directly cause the sustained Ca2+ release required for tetanic contraction.