ENT
1 questions65-year-old person with hearing loss with normal speech discrimination is suffering from?
NEET-PG 2012 - ENT NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 821: 65-year-old person with hearing loss with normal speech discrimination is suffering from?
- A. Noise induced hearing loss
- B. Presbycusis (Correct Answer)
- C. Ototoxic drug
- D. NOHL
Explanation: ***Presbycusis*** - **Presbycusis**, or age-related hearing loss, is characterized by a gradual, symmetrical, **sensorineural hearing loss** primarily affecting high frequencies. - Importantly, **speech discrimination** is typically preserved in the early and moderate stages of presbycusis, which aligns with the normal speech discrimination in a 65-year-old. *Noise induced hearing loss* - **Noise-induced hearing loss** is caused by exposure to loud noise and often presents with a characteristic **4 kHz notch** in the audiogram. - While it can cause sensorineural hearing loss, it's not exclusively defined by the age-related onset and might involve more significant **speech discrimination difficulties** depending on the severity and frequency range affected. *Ototoxic drug* - Hearing loss due to **ototoxic drugs** (e.g., aminoglycosides, cisplatin) typically manifests as a **bilateral, high-frequency sensorineural hearing loss** that can progress rapidly. - The history of **drug exposure** would be a key differentiating factor, and while speech discrimination can be affected, the lack of other specific details makes this less likely without further information. *NOHL* - **NOHL** is not a standard, recognized medical acronym for a specific type of hearing loss. - This option is likely a distractor and does not represent a known diagnosis fitting the described clinical picture.
Internal Medicine
7 questionsJaw tightness is typically seen in:
What is a characteristic finding in athletes' hearts, also known as athletic syndrome?
Which biomarker is typically elevated in the plasma of patients with chronic heart disease?
A person experiences asthma attacks more than twice during the day and at least once during the night. What is the most likely classification of their asthma?
Which of the following is a renal-specific nephropathy associated with HIV?
Which of the following is a characteristic of Wilson's disease?
The most common cause of pontine hemorrhage is
NEET-PG 2012 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 821: Jaw tightness is typically seen in:
- A. Coarctation of aorta
- B. Giant cell arteritis (GCA) (Correct Answer)
- C. Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)
- D. Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (GPA)
Explanation: ***Giant cell arteritis (GCA)*** - **Jaw claudication** or tightness, difficulty chewing, and pain in the jaw are classic symptoms of GCA, resulting from **ischemia of the masticatory muscles**. [1] - This condition is a **large vessel vasculitis** that frequently affects the **temporal arteries** and can lead to blindness if untreated. [1] *Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)* - PAN is a **necrotizing vasculitis** that typically affects **medium-sized arteries**, often sparing the pulmonary circulation. [1] - Common symptoms include **neuropathy**, abdominal pain, and skin lesions (e.g., livedo reticularis), but **jaw tightness is not a typical feature**. *Coarctation of aorta* - This is a **congenital narrowing of the aorta**, leading to symptoms like **upper extremity hypertension**, headache, and claudication in the lower extremities. - **Jaw tightness is not a symptom** associated with coarctation of the aorta. *Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (GPA)* - GPA is a **small-vessel vasculitis** characterized by **granulomatous inflammation** involving the upper and lower respiratory tracts, and glomerulonephritis. - Symptoms often include **sinusitis**, lung nodules, and kidney disease, but **jaw claudication is not a characteristic presentation**.
Question 822: What is a characteristic finding in athletes' hearts, also known as athletic syndrome?
- A. Increased amplitude of QRS (Correct Answer)
- B. Decreased QT interval
- C. U-waves
- D. Bradycardia
Explanation: ***Increased amplitude of QRS*** - In **athletes' hearts**, the heart muscle (myocardium) undergoes physiological adaptations, including **left ventricular hypertrophy**, which leads to an **increased amplitude of the QRS complex** on an ECG. - This is a normal and beneficial adaptation that enhances cardiac output and efficiency during exercise. *Bradycardia* - While **bradycardia** (a slower heart rate) is very common in athletes due to increased **vagal tone** and improved cardiac efficiency, it is not the most direct characteristic finding *on an ECG* reflecting the structural changes of athletic heart syndrome. - Bradycardia is a rate finding, not a waveform amplitude change reflecting myocardial mass. *Decreased QT interval* - A **decreased QT interval** is not a typical characteristic of an athlete's heart; in fact, there is usually no significant change or a slight prolongation due to bradycardia, but it remains within normal limits. - A pathologically short QT interval can indicate specific genetic channelopathies, which are unrelated to athletic adaptation. *U-waves* - **U-waves** are small positive deflections sometimes seen after the T wave, often associated with **bradycardia** or **hypokalemia**. - While athletes can have bradycardia, U-waves are not a consistent or defining feature of an athlete's heart syndrome itself, and their presence can also indicate other conditions.
Question 823: Which biomarker is typically elevated in the plasma of patients with chronic heart disease?
- A. Endothelin-1
- B. Troponin T
- C. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) (Correct Answer)
- D. Cortisol
Explanation: ***B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)*** - **BNP** is a hormone secreted by **ventricular cardiomyocytes** in response to increased wall stretch and pressure overload, making it a strong indicator of **myocardial stress** and **chronic heart failure** [1]. - Elevated levels correlate with the **severity of heart failure**, aiding in diagnosis and prognosis [1]. *Endothelin-1* - **Endothelin-1** is a potent **vasoconstrictor** involved in vascular tone regulation and endothelial dysfunction. - While it can be elevated in conditions like **pulmonary hypertension** and **atherosclerosis**, it is not a primary diagnostic biomarker for chronic heart disease in general. *Troponin T* - **Troponin T** is a cardiac-specific protein that is released into the bloodstream following **myocardial injury or necrosis**. - While it is a crucial biomarker for **acute coronary syndromes** (e.g., heart attack), persistently elevated levels are not typical for stable chronic heart disease unless there is ongoing subclinical myocardial damage. *Cortisol* - **Cortisol** is a **stress hormone** produced by the adrenal glands, involved in metabolism, immune response, and blood pressure regulation. - While chronic stress can impact cardiovascular health, cortisol itself is not a specific diagnostic biomarker for chronic heart disease.
Question 824: A person experiences asthma attacks more than twice during the day and at least once during the night. What is the most likely classification of their asthma?
- A. Intermittent asthma
- B. Mild persistent asthma
- C. Moderate persistent asthma
- D. Severe persistent asthma (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Severe persistent asthma*** - This classification is characterized by **frequent symptoms**, specifically asthma attacks occurring more than twice daily and at least once nightly. - Individuals with severe persistent asthma often experience significant limitations in their daily activities and may have a **FEV1 (forced expiratory volume in 1 second)** less than 60% of predicted. *Intermittent asthma* - This classification is characterized by symptoms occurring less than two days per week and **nighttime awakenings less than two times per month**. - Symptoms are generally well-controlled with a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) as needed. *Mild persistent asthma* - Patients with mild persistent asthma typically experience symptoms more than twice a week but **less than once a day**, and **nighttime awakenings 3-4 times per month**. - Their lung function (FEV1) is usually 80% or more of predicted. *Moderate persistent asthma* - This category involves daily symptoms and **nighttime awakenings more than once per week but not nightly**. - Lung function (FEV1) in moderate persistent asthma typically falls between 60% and 80% of predicted.
Question 825: Which of the following is a renal-specific nephropathy associated with HIV?
- A. Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) (Correct Answer)
- B. Mesangioproliferative Glomerulonephritis
- C. Membranous Nephropathy
- D. Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis (MPGN)
Explanation: ### Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis - It is a common renal complication associated with **HIV infection**, characterized by **podocyte injury** and segmental sclerosis [1]. - Often results in **nephrotic syndrome**, presenting with significant **proteinuria** and edema, making it distinct in HIV renal pathology [1]. ### Membranous Glomerulonephritis - Typically presents with **subepithelial immune complex deposits**, leading to a different pathophysiological mechanism. - More commonly associated with other secondary causes, such as **drugs** or **infection**, rather than being specific to HIV. ### Mesangioproliferative Glomerulonephritis - Characterized by **mesangial cell proliferation and immune complex deposition**, often linked with various infections but not specifically with HIV. - Usually shows **hematuria** and mild proteinuria, lacking the severe nephrotic syndrome seen in focal segmental glomerulosclerosis. ### Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis - Features **proliferation of mesangial and endothelial cells**, leading to a distinctive pattern on renal biopsy, not specific to HIV. - Typically presents in other contexts such as **chronic infections** or **autoimmune diseases**, rather than predominantly with HIV.
Question 826: Which of the following is a characteristic of Wilson's disease?
- A. Increased copper in liver (Correct Answer)
- B. Autosomal dominant
- C. Increased serum ceruloplasmin
- D. Decreased copper excretion in urine
Explanation: ***Increased copper in liver*** - Wilson's disease is characterized by **accumulation of copper** in liver tissues due to defective copper transport [1]. - This excess leads to **hepatocellular damage**, resulting in liver dysfunction and potential cirrhosis [1]. *Decreased copper excretion in urine* - In Wilson's disease, there is actually **decreased excretion of copper**, which results in accumulation in the liver [1]. - **Urine copper levels** are typically low to normal in early stages because the liver fails to excrete excess copper effectively. *Autosomal dominant* - Wilson's disease is inherited in an **autosomal recessive** pattern, not dominant. - It is caused by mutations in the gene responsible for copper transport (ATP7B) [1]. *Increased serum ceruloplasmin* - Serum ceruloplasmin levels are often **decreased** in Wilson's disease due to impaired copper incorporation into this protein [1]. - Low ceruloplasmin is a key laboratory finding, contrasting the assertion of this option.
Question 827: The most common cause of pontine hemorrhage is
- A. Hypertension (Correct Answer)
- B. Diabetes
- C. Trauma
- D. Aneurysmal rupture
Explanation: Hypertension - **Chronic hypertension** leads to the weakening and rupture of small perforating arteries in the pons, making it the most common cause of **pontine hemorrhage** [1]. - The elevated pressure damages the **endothelium** and smooth muscle layers of these vessels, predisposing them to bleeding. *Diabetes* - While diabetes can cause microvascular complications, it is not considered the most common cause of **pontine hemorrhage**. - Its primary cerebral vascular complications include increased risk of **ischemic stroke** rather than hemorrhagic stroke in the pons. *Trauma* - **Traumatic brain injury** can cause various types of intracranial hemorrhage, but isolated **pontine hemorrhage** directly due to trauma is less common than that due to hypertension [1]. - Trauma typically results in contusions, subdural, or epidural hematomas, often in superficial brain regions. *Aneurysmal rupture* - **Aneurysmal rupture** is a common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage, particularly from the Circle of Willis, but pontine hemorrhages are rarely caused by aneurysms within the pons itself [1]. - The vessels supplying the pons are typically small and perforating, not commonly forming dissecting or saccular aneurysms.
Ophthalmology
1 questionsIris coloboma is most common in which location?
NEET-PG 2012 - Ophthalmology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 821: Iris coloboma is most common in which location?
- A. Superotemporal
- B. Inferonasal (Correct Answer)
- C. Inferotemporal
- D. Superonasal
Explanation: ***Inferonasal*** - **Iris coloboma** most commonly occurs in the **inferonasal quadrant** (at approximately the **6 o'clock position**) - This location corresponds to the site of the **embryonic fetal fissure** (choroidal fissure), which normally closes during the **5th to 7th week of gestation** - When the fetal fissure fails to close completely, it results in a **keyhole-shaped defect** in the iris, and potentially involves other ocular structures (ciliary body, choroid, retina, optic nerve) along the same inferonasal axis - This is a well-established anatomical pattern seen in **congenital colobomas** *Inferotemporal* - The inferotemporal quadrant is **not the typical location** for iris coloboma - Embryologically, the fetal fissure does not extend into the temporal region, making colobomas in this location extremely rare - Colobomas outside the inferonasal location are usually **atypical colobomas** caused by different mechanisms *Superotemporal* - The superotemporal quadrant is **not associated** with the fetal fissure closure pathway - Colobomas in this location would be considered atypical and not related to embryonic fissure closure defects - This is not a common presentation for congenital iris coloboma *Superonasal* - The superonasal quadrant is also **not part of the fetal fissure pathway** - While superior colobomas can occasionally occur as atypical variants, they do not represent the classic congenital coloboma pattern - The embryological basis for typical coloboma formation does not involve the superior regions of the eye
Psychiatry
1 questionsWhich of the following is not associated with subcortical dementia?
NEET-PG 2012 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 821: Which of the following is not associated with subcortical dementia?
- A. Wilson's disease
- B. Alzheimer's disease (Correct Answer)
- C. Huntington's chorea
- D. Parkinsonism
Explanation: ***Alzheimer's disease*** - Alzheimer's disease is primarily a **cortical dementia**, characterized by global cognitive decline, specifically affecting memory, language, and executive functions. - It involves the accumulation of **amyloid plaques** and **neurofibrillary tangles** predominantly in the cerebral cortex. *Parkinsonism* - Parkinsonism, particularly Parkinson's disease dementia, is a common cause of **subcortical dementia**. - It presents with prominent **motor symptoms** (bradykinesia, rigidity, tremor) along with cognitive impairment affecting executive function and attention. *Wilson's disease* - Wilson's disease is a genetic disorder leading to **copper accumulation**, which can cause significant damage to the basal ganglia and other subcortical structures. - This often results in a **subcortical dementia** characterized by motor symptoms, psychiatric disturbances, and cognitive decline. *Huntington's chorea* - Huntington's chorea is a neurodegenerative genetic disorder primarily affecting the **basal ganglia**, a key subcortical structure. - It is a classic example of **subcortical dementia**, presenting with characteristic choreiform movements, psychiatric disturbances, and cognitive impairment.