Community Medicine
1 questionsWhat is the concentration of type 3 virus in the trivalent oral polio vaccine?
NEET-PG 2012 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 791: What is the concentration of type 3 virus in the trivalent oral polio vaccine?
- A. 400,000 TCID 50
- B. 100,000 TCID 50
- C. 300,000 TCID 50
- D. 600,000 TCID 50 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***600,000 TCID 50*** - The **trivalent oral polio vaccine (tOPV)** traditionally contained specific concentrations of each serotype: **type 1 (1,000,000 TCID50/dose)**, **type 2 (100,000 TCID50/dose)**, and **type 3 (600,000 TCID50/dose)**. - Type 3 poliovirus requires a **higher concentration (600,000 TCID50)** compared to type 2 to achieve adequate immunogenicity and protection. - The **World Health Organization (WHO)** established these specific formulations for tOPV to ensure optimal efficacy and safety for each serotype. *100,000 TCID 50* - This is the concentration of **type 2 poliovirus** in tOPV, not type 3. - Due to the **global eradication of wild poliovirus type 2** by 2015, tOPV was replaced with bivalent OPV (bOPV) containing only types 1 and 3 in routine immunization programs. *400,000 TCID 50* - This concentration does not correspond to any standard poliovirus serotype in the traditional trivalent oral polio vaccine. - This value falls between type 2 (100,000) and type 3 (600,000) concentrations but is not used. *300,000 TCID 50* - This concentration is not the standard for any poliovirus serotype in the traditional trivalent oral polio vaccine. - Each serotype has a **distinct, empirically determined concentration** to achieve optimal immunity while minimizing adverse effects.
ENT
1 questions65-year-old person with hearing loss with normal speech discrimination is suffering from?
NEET-PG 2012 - ENT NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 791: 65-year-old person with hearing loss with normal speech discrimination is suffering from?
- A. Noise induced hearing loss
- B. Presbycusis (Correct Answer)
- C. Ototoxic drug
- D. NOHL
Explanation: ***Presbycusis*** - **Presbycusis**, or age-related hearing loss, is characterized by a gradual, symmetrical, **sensorineural hearing loss** primarily affecting high frequencies. - Importantly, **speech discrimination** is typically preserved in the early and moderate stages of presbycusis, which aligns with the normal speech discrimination in a 65-year-old. *Noise induced hearing loss* - **Noise-induced hearing loss** is caused by exposure to loud noise and often presents with a characteristic **4 kHz notch** in the audiogram. - While it can cause sensorineural hearing loss, it's not exclusively defined by the age-related onset and might involve more significant **speech discrimination difficulties** depending on the severity and frequency range affected. *Ototoxic drug* - Hearing loss due to **ototoxic drugs** (e.g., aminoglycosides, cisplatin) typically manifests as a **bilateral, high-frequency sensorineural hearing loss** that can progress rapidly. - The history of **drug exposure** would be a key differentiating factor, and while speech discrimination can be affected, the lack of other specific details makes this less likely without further information. *NOHL* - **NOHL** is not a standard, recognized medical acronym for a specific type of hearing loss. - This option is likely a distractor and does not represent a known diagnosis fitting the described clinical picture.
Internal Medicine
5 questionsWhat is a characteristic finding in athletes' hearts, also known as athletic syndrome?
Which biomarker is typically elevated in the plasma of patients with chronic heart disease?
A person experiences asthma attacks more than twice during the day and at least once during the night. What is the most likely classification of their asthma?
Which of the following is a renal-specific nephropathy associated with HIV?
Which of the following is a characteristic of Wilson's disease?
NEET-PG 2012 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 791: What is a characteristic finding in athletes' hearts, also known as athletic syndrome?
- A. Increased amplitude of QRS (Correct Answer)
- B. Decreased QT interval
- C. U-waves
- D. Bradycardia
Explanation: ***Increased amplitude of QRS*** - In **athletes' hearts**, the heart muscle (myocardium) undergoes physiological adaptations, including **left ventricular hypertrophy**, which leads to an **increased amplitude of the QRS complex** on an ECG. - This is a normal and beneficial adaptation that enhances cardiac output and efficiency during exercise. *Bradycardia* - While **bradycardia** (a slower heart rate) is very common in athletes due to increased **vagal tone** and improved cardiac efficiency, it is not the most direct characteristic finding *on an ECG* reflecting the structural changes of athletic heart syndrome. - Bradycardia is a rate finding, not a waveform amplitude change reflecting myocardial mass. *Decreased QT interval* - A **decreased QT interval** is not a typical characteristic of an athlete's heart; in fact, there is usually no significant change or a slight prolongation due to bradycardia, but it remains within normal limits. - A pathologically short QT interval can indicate specific genetic channelopathies, which are unrelated to athletic adaptation. *U-waves* - **U-waves** are small positive deflections sometimes seen after the T wave, often associated with **bradycardia** or **hypokalemia**. - While athletes can have bradycardia, U-waves are not a consistent or defining feature of an athlete's heart syndrome itself, and their presence can also indicate other conditions.
Question 792: Which biomarker is typically elevated in the plasma of patients with chronic heart disease?
- A. Endothelin-1
- B. Troponin T
- C. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) (Correct Answer)
- D. Cortisol
Explanation: ***B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)*** - **BNP** is a hormone secreted by **ventricular cardiomyocytes** in response to increased wall stretch and pressure overload, making it a strong indicator of **myocardial stress** and **chronic heart failure** [1]. - Elevated levels correlate with the **severity of heart failure**, aiding in diagnosis and prognosis [1]. *Endothelin-1* - **Endothelin-1** is a potent **vasoconstrictor** involved in vascular tone regulation and endothelial dysfunction. - While it can be elevated in conditions like **pulmonary hypertension** and **atherosclerosis**, it is not a primary diagnostic biomarker for chronic heart disease in general. *Troponin T* - **Troponin T** is a cardiac-specific protein that is released into the bloodstream following **myocardial injury or necrosis**. - While it is a crucial biomarker for **acute coronary syndromes** (e.g., heart attack), persistently elevated levels are not typical for stable chronic heart disease unless there is ongoing subclinical myocardial damage. *Cortisol* - **Cortisol** is a **stress hormone** produced by the adrenal glands, involved in metabolism, immune response, and blood pressure regulation. - While chronic stress can impact cardiovascular health, cortisol itself is not a specific diagnostic biomarker for chronic heart disease.
Question 793: A person experiences asthma attacks more than twice during the day and at least once during the night. What is the most likely classification of their asthma?
- A. Intermittent asthma
- B. Mild persistent asthma
- C. Moderate persistent asthma
- D. Severe persistent asthma (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Severe persistent asthma*** - This classification is characterized by **frequent symptoms**, specifically asthma attacks occurring more than twice daily and at least once nightly. - Individuals with severe persistent asthma often experience significant limitations in their daily activities and may have a **FEV1 (forced expiratory volume in 1 second)** less than 60% of predicted. *Intermittent asthma* - This classification is characterized by symptoms occurring less than two days per week and **nighttime awakenings less than two times per month**. - Symptoms are generally well-controlled with a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) as needed. *Mild persistent asthma* - Patients with mild persistent asthma typically experience symptoms more than twice a week but **less than once a day**, and **nighttime awakenings 3-4 times per month**. - Their lung function (FEV1) is usually 80% or more of predicted. *Moderate persistent asthma* - This category involves daily symptoms and **nighttime awakenings more than once per week but not nightly**. - Lung function (FEV1) in moderate persistent asthma typically falls between 60% and 80% of predicted.
Question 794: Which of the following is a renal-specific nephropathy associated with HIV?
- A. Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) (Correct Answer)
- B. Mesangioproliferative Glomerulonephritis
- C. Membranous Nephropathy
- D. Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis (MPGN)
Explanation: ### Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis - It is a common renal complication associated with **HIV infection**, characterized by **podocyte injury** and segmental sclerosis [1]. - Often results in **nephrotic syndrome**, presenting with significant **proteinuria** and edema, making it distinct in HIV renal pathology [1]. ### Membranous Glomerulonephritis - Typically presents with **subepithelial immune complex deposits**, leading to a different pathophysiological mechanism. - More commonly associated with other secondary causes, such as **drugs** or **infection**, rather than being specific to HIV. ### Mesangioproliferative Glomerulonephritis - Characterized by **mesangial cell proliferation and immune complex deposition**, often linked with various infections but not specifically with HIV. - Usually shows **hematuria** and mild proteinuria, lacking the severe nephrotic syndrome seen in focal segmental glomerulosclerosis. ### Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis - Features **proliferation of mesangial and endothelial cells**, leading to a distinctive pattern on renal biopsy, not specific to HIV. - Typically presents in other contexts such as **chronic infections** or **autoimmune diseases**, rather than predominantly with HIV.
Question 795: Which of the following is a characteristic of Wilson's disease?
- A. Increased copper in liver (Correct Answer)
- B. Autosomal dominant
- C. Increased serum ceruloplasmin
- D. Decreased copper excretion in urine
Explanation: ***Increased copper in liver*** - Wilson's disease is characterized by **accumulation of copper** in liver tissues due to defective copper transport [1]. - This excess leads to **hepatocellular damage**, resulting in liver dysfunction and potential cirrhosis [1]. *Decreased copper excretion in urine* - In Wilson's disease, there is actually **decreased excretion of copper**, which results in accumulation in the liver [1]. - **Urine copper levels** are typically low to normal in early stages because the liver fails to excrete excess copper effectively. *Autosomal dominant* - Wilson's disease is inherited in an **autosomal recessive** pattern, not dominant. - It is caused by mutations in the gene responsible for copper transport (ATP7B) [1]. *Increased serum ceruloplasmin* - Serum ceruloplasmin levels are often **decreased** in Wilson's disease due to impaired copper incorporation into this protein [1]. - Low ceruloplasmin is a key laboratory finding, contrasting the assertion of this option.
Microbiology
2 questionsHow many flagella does Helicobacter pylori typically have?
Which of the following statements is false regarding yersiniosis?
NEET-PG 2012 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 791: How many flagella does Helicobacter pylori typically have?
- A. 4-6 (Correct Answer)
- B. 3
- C. 2
- D. 1
Explanation: ***4-6*** - *Helicobacter pylori* is characterized by having **multiple flagella** (typically 4-6) at one pole, which are crucial for its motility. - These flagella allow the bacterium to move through the viscous gastric mucus layer and colonize the gastric epithelium. *1* - While some bacteria, like *Vibrio cholerae*, may possess a single polar flagellum, this is not characteristic of *Helicobacter pylori*. - A single flagellum would provide less efficient motility in the challenging environment of the stomach. *2* - Having two flagella is not the typical configuration for *Helicobacter pylori*. - Many bacteria have varied flagellar arrangements, but two is not representative of this particular bacterium. *3* - Three flagella is an insufficient number for the characteristic motility and colonization strategy of *Helicobacter pylori*. - **Lophotrichous** flagella typically refers to a tuft of multiple flagella, consistent with 4-6.
Question 792: Which of the following statements is false regarding yersiniosis?
- A. Gram-negative bacillus
- B. Caused by Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
- C. Caused by Yersinia pestis (Correct Answer)
- D. Caused by Yersinia enterocolitica
Explanation: ***Caused by Yersinia pestis*** - **Yersinia pestis** is the causative agent of **plague**, not typical yersiniosis affecting the gastrointestinal tract. - Yersiniosis generally refers to infections caused by other *Yersinia* species like *Y. enterocolitica* and *Y. pseudotuberculosis*. *Gram-negative bacillus* - *Yersinia* species, including *Y. enterocolitica* and *Y. pseudotuberculosis*, are indeed **Gram-negative bacilli**. - This characteristic is fundamental to their classification and bacterial structure. *Caused by Yersinia pseudotuberculosis* - **Yersinia pseudotuberculosis** is a recognized cause of **yersiniosis**, particularly affecting children. - It can cause symptoms such as **abdominal pain** and **mesenteric lymphadenitis**, mimicking appendicitis. *Caused by Yersinia enterocolitica* - **Yersinia enterocolitica** is the **most common cause of yersiniosis** in humans. - It is responsible for a range of symptoms including **gastroenteritis**, **acute enteritis**, and **mesenteric lymphadenitis**.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsLeast common presentation of twins?
NEET-PG 2012 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 791: Least common presentation of twins?
- A. Both breech
- B. Both transverse (Correct Answer)
- C. First vertex and 2nd transverse
- D. Both vertex
Explanation: ***Correct: Both transverse*** - A **transverse lie** means both fetuses are positioned horizontally across the uterus - This is the **rarest twin presentation**, occurring in approximately **0.5% of twin pregnancies** - The limited uterine space and natural tendency of fetuses to settle into longitudinal positions makes this presentation exceptionally uncommon - **Management**: Requires cesarean delivery due to impossibility of vaginal birth with both twins transverse *Incorrect: Both breech* - **Breech presentation** (feet or buttocks first) is more common in twin pregnancies than in singletons - Occurs in approximately **5-10% of twin pregnancies** - While complicated, both twins being breech is **significantly more common** than both transverse *Incorrect: First vertex and 2nd transverse* - The **first twin being cephalic (vertex)** is the most favorable and common position - The **second twin presenting transversely** can occur after delivery of the first twin when increased intrauterine space allows position change - This combination is **more common than both transverse** but requires careful management of the second twin *Incorrect: Both vertex* - **Vertex presentation for both twins** (both head-down) is the **most common presentation**, occurring in **40-45% of twin pregnancies** - This is the **optimal presentation for vaginal delivery** - Offers the best outcomes with lowest intervention rates