Community Medicine
6 questionsWhat are the serogroups covered by the bivalent meningococcal vaccine?
Which is the main vector of Dengue?
Which of the following is a zoonotic disease?
Which of the following statements about the Late Expanding Phase of the Demographic Cycle is TRUE?
What does the net reproduction rate indicate?
Which agency monitors air quality in India?
NEET-PG 2012 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 601: What are the serogroups covered by the bivalent meningococcal vaccine?
- A. Serogroup A
- B. Serogroup A and C (Correct Answer)
- C. Serogroup W
- D. Serogroup C
Explanation: ***Serogroup A and C*** - The **bivalent meningococcal vaccine** specifically targets and provides protection against **Neisseria meningitidis** serogroups **A and C**. - This vaccine is crucial for preventing invasive meningococcal disease caused by these prevalent strains, particularly in the African meningitis belt. - Examples include **meningococcal AC conjugate vaccines** used in mass vaccination campaigns. *Serogroup A* - While **Serogroup A** is one of the types covered by bivalent vaccines, it is not the only one. - A vaccine covering only Serogroup A would be a **monovalent vaccine**, not bivalent. *Serogroup W* - **Serogroup W** is covered by **quadrivalent meningococcal vaccines** (e.g., MenACWY) which protect against serogroups A, C, W, and Y. - It is **not included** in **bivalent** formulations. *Serogroup C* - While **Serogroup C** is one of the types covered by bivalent vaccines, it is not the only one. - A vaccine covering only Serogroup C would be a **monovalent vaccine**, not bivalent.
Question 602: Which is the main vector of Dengue?
- A. A. aegypti (Correct Answer)
- B. Culex
- C. Anopheles
- D. Aedes scutellaris
Explanation: ***A. aegypti*** - **Aedes aegypti** is the primary vector responsible for transmitting the **Dengue virus** to humans. - It is a **day-biting mosquito** found predominantly in tropical and subtropical regions. *Culex* - **Culex mosquitoes** are known vectors for diseases like **Japanese encephalitis**, **West Nile virus**, and **filariasis**. - They are generally **night-biting** and do not play a significant role in Dengue transmission. *Anopheles* - **Anopheles mosquitoes** are the primary vectors for **malaria** in humans. - They are not associated with the transmission of the Dengue virus. *Aedes scutellaris* - While part of the **Aedes genus**, **Aedes scutellaris** is a secondary vector for Dengue in the **Pacific region**. - The main vector for Dengue globally remains **Aedes aegypti**, followed by **Aedes albopictus** in some regions.
Question 603: Which of the following is a zoonotic disease?
- A. Hydatid cyst (Correct Answer)
- B. Malaria
- C. Filariasis
- D. Dengue fever
Explanation: ***Hydatid cyst*** - This disease is caused by the larval stage of the tapeworm **Echinococcus granulosus**, which completes its life cycle in dogs and sheep. - Humans can become infected by ingesting material contaminated with **Echinococcus eggs**, typically from contact with infected dogs or contaminated food/water, making it a zoonotic disease. *Malaria* - Malaria is transmitted by the **Anopheles mosquito** biting infected humans and then uninfected humans. - While it involves a vector, its primary reservoir is humans and it is not typically considered zoonotic as there is no animal-to-human transmission from a non-human primary reservoir. *Filariasis* - Filariasis is spread by various mosquito vectors (e.g., **Culex, Anopheles, Aedes**) that transmit parasitic worms to humans. - The life cycle primarily involves humans and mosquitos, and it is not classified as a zoonotic disease. *Dengue fever* - Dengue fever is a viral infection transmitted by **Aedes mosquitoes** (primarily *Aedes aegypti* and *Aedes albopictus*) between humans. - Similar to malaria, while it involves a vector, the primary reservoir is humans, and it is not considered zoonotic.
Question 604: Which of the following statements about the Late Expanding Phase of the Demographic Cycle is TRUE?
- A. Death Rate becomes significantly lower than Birth Rate during this phase
- B. Death Rate declines more than Birth Rate (Correct Answer)
- C. Birth Rate remains consistently high while Death Rate starts to decline significantly
- D. Birth Rate remains higher than Death Rate, leading to population growth
Explanation: ***Death Rate declines more than Birth Rate*** - In the **Late Expanding Phase**, the **birth rate** remains high, while the **death rate** continues to fall **rapidly** due to improved healthcare, sanitation, and nutrition. - This significant decline in the death rate, coupled with a still high birth rate, results in a rapid and substantial increase in **population growth** (demographic explosion). - The key characteristic is the **greater rate of decline** in death rate compared to birth rate. *Birth Rate remains consistently high while Death Rate starts to decline significantly* - The word **"starts"** is the critical error here - it describes the **Early Expanding Phase**, not the Late Expanding Phase. - In the **Late Expanding Phase**, the death rate has *already been declining* and continues to decline rapidly. - The death rate decline **begins** in the Early Expanding Phase, not the Late Expanding Phase. *Death Rate becomes significantly lower than Birth Rate during this phase* - While this statement is true, it describes a **consequence** rather than the defining characteristic of the Late Expanding Phase. - This condition exists throughout the expanding phases, making it less specific. - The defining feature is the **rate of decline** of death rate being greater than any decline in birth rate. *Birth Rate remains higher than Death Rate, leading to population growth* - This statement is true but **too generic** - it applies to all expanding phases where population growth occurs. - It does not specifically distinguish the **Late Expanding Phase** from the Early Expanding Phase. - The unique feature of the Late Expanding Phase is the **rapid and dramatic decline** in death rate while birth rate remains high.
Question 605: What does the net reproduction rate indicate?
- A. Number of live births per 1000 mid-year population
- B. Number of live births per 1000 women of child bearing age
- C. Average number of daughters a newborn girl will have during her lifetime (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Average number of daughters a newborn girl will have during her lifetime*** - The **net reproduction rate (NRR)** specifically measures the average number of **daughters** a newborn girl is expected to have throughout her reproductive years, taking into account **mortality** rates. - An NRR of 1 indicates that each generation of women is exactly replacing itself, while an NRR greater or less than 1 suggests population growth or decline, respectively. - This is the **correct definition** of NRR and focuses on female offspring as they are the ones who will contribute to the next generation. *Number of live births per 1000 mid-year population* - This describes the **crude birth rate (CBR)**, which is a general measure of fertility but does not account for the age and sex structure of the population or mortality rates. - It includes all live births in relation to the total population, not specifically focusing on the generational replacement of females. *Number of live births per 1000 women of child bearing age* - This definition refers to the **general fertility rate (GFR)**, which is a more refined measure of fertility than the crude birth rate, as it focuses on women in their reproductive years (typically 15-49 years). - However, it still does not track the replacement of daughters who will become mothers, nor does it factor in mortality within the female population. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because one of the given options accurately defines the net reproduction rate. - The net reproduction rate is a well-established demographic indicator used in population studies and public health planning.
Question 606: Which agency monitors air quality in India?
- A. None of the above
- B. Central pollution control board (Correct Answer)
- C. Central air quality board
- D. Central public works dept
Explanation: ***Central pollution control board*** - The **Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)** is responsible for setting standards and monitoring air quality across India. - It works under the **Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC)**. *Central air quality board* - There is **no specific agency** or board named "Central Air Quality Board" in India. - Air quality monitoring falls under the broader mandate of pollution control. *Central public works dept* - The **Central Public Works Department (CPWD)** is primarily involved in the construction and maintenance of government buildings and infrastructure. - It does **not have a mandate** for environmental monitoring like air quality. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because the **Central Pollution Control Board** is the correct agency responsible for air quality monitoring. - There is a specific statutory organization fulfilling this role.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsHIV post exposure prophylaxis should be started within?
NEET-PG 2012 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 601: HIV post exposure prophylaxis should be started within?
- A. 1-2 hrs
- B. 14 hrs
- C. 18 hrs
- D. 72 hrs (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***72 hrs*** - **Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)** aims to prevent HIV infection after potential exposure and should ideally be initiated as soon as possible, but no later than **72 hours** after exposure [1]. - Starting PEP within this window significantly increases its effectiveness in preventing HIV seroconversion. *1-2 hrs* - While initiating PEP as soon as possible is crucial, stating it must be within **1-2 hours** can be misleading as the window of effectiveness extends beyond this. - This timeframe might be an ideal, but not the absolute crucial limit for efficacy. *14 hrs* - This timeframe is **too restrictive** for the recommended window for PEP initiation. - Missing the opportunity within **14 hours** does not negate the effectiveness of PEP if started within the broader 72-hour window. *18 hrs* - Similar to **14 hours**, **18 hours** is an unnecessarily strict limit for PEP initiation. - Guidelines universally support starting PEP up to **72 hours** post-exposure for optimal benefit [1].
Pharmacology
2 questionsWhat is the recommended dosage for chloroquine chemoprophylaxis in malaria prevention?
What is the name of the mumps vaccine?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 601: What is the recommended dosage for chloroquine chemoprophylaxis in malaria prevention?
- A. 500 mg/week
- B. 400 mg once weekly
- C. 500 mg once weekly (Correct Answer)
- D. 500 mg BD/week
Explanation: ***500 mg once weekly*** - The recommended dosage for chloroquine chemoprophylaxis in malaria prevention is **500 mg salt** (or equivalent to 300 mg base) administered **once weekly**. - This regimen ensures adequate blood concentrations to prevent malarial infection in endemic areas. *500 mg/week* - While the 500 mg dose is correct, simply stating "500 mg/week" without specifying "once weekly" could be misinterpreted. - Chloroquine is generally taken as a **single weekly dose**, not divided doses. *400 mg once weekly* - A dosage of **400 mg** is **sub-therapeutic** for weekly chloroquine chemoprophylaxis. - This dose would likely not provide sufficient protection against malaria. *500 mg BD/week* - Taking chloroquine **twice weekly (BD/week)** at 500 mg is excessive for chemoprophylaxis. - This regimen can lead to increased side effects and toxicity without providing additional prophylactic benefit.
Question 602: What is the name of the mumps vaccine?
- A. Jeryl Lynn (Correct Answer)
- B. Moraten
- C. Edmonston-Zagreb
- D. Schwarz
Explanation: ***Jeryl Lynn*** - The **Jeryl Lynn strain** is a widely used and highly effective **live attenuated mumps vaccine virus** found in many combined MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccines. - It was developed by **Maurice Hilleman** and is known for its **low reactogenicity** and good safety profile. *Edmonston-Zagreb* - The **Edmonston-Zagreb strain** is a specific type of **live attenuated measles vaccine virus**, not mumps. - It is used in some combinations of the **MMR vaccine** but is distinct from the mumps component. *Schwarz* - The **Schwarz strain** is another variant of **live attenuated measles vaccine virus**, primarily distinguished by its passage history. - Like Edmonston-Zagreb, it targets **measles prevention** and is not used for mumps. *Moraten* - The **Moraten strain** is a specific **live attenuated measles vaccine virus** that is derived from the **Edmonston B strain**. - It is one of the most common measles vaccine strains, also used in **MMR vaccines**, but it does not protect against mumps.
Psychiatry
1 questionsWhat are the homes called where children are placed under the care of doctors and psychiatrists?
NEET-PG 2012 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 601: What are the homes called where children are placed under the care of doctors and psychiatrists?
- A. Foster care homes
- B. Youth detention centers
- C. Child mental health clinics
- D. Residential treatment facilities (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Residential treatment facilities*** - These facilities provide structured, live-in therapeutic environments where children and adolescents receive comprehensive psychiatric and medical care. - They are staffed by a multidisciplinary team including **psychiatrists**, psychologists, social workers, and nurses. *Foster care homes* - Foster care involves placing children with temporary families, usually due to neglect or abuse, focusing on a family-like setting rather than intensive medical or psychiatric care. - While foster children may receive mental health services, the homes themselves are not clinical environments. *Youth detention centers* - These facilities are for children and adolescents who have committed crimes and are awaiting trial or serving sentences. - While mental health services may be provided, their primary purpose is correctional, not therapeutic. *Child mental health clinics* - These clinics offer outpatient services, including diagnosis, therapy, and medication management, but do not provide residential care. - Children attend appointments and then return home, unlike the live-in care provided in residential facilities.