Anesthesiology
1 questionsWhat is the potential respiratory complication associated with the use of Trilene in combination with Sodalime?
NEET-PG 2012 - Anesthesiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 521: What is the potential respiratory complication associated with the use of Trilene in combination with Sodalime?
- A. Renal toxicity
- B. Hepatotoxicity
- C. Myocardial depression
- D. Airway irritation and inflammation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Airway irritation and inflammation*** - The interaction between **Trilene (trichloroethylene)** and **soda lime** in a closed anesthetic circuit can produce **dichloroacetylene**. - **Dichloroacetylene** is a highly toxic compound that can cause severe airway irritation, inflammation, and even **necrosis** of the respiratory tract. *Renal toxicity* - While some halogenated anesthetics (e.g., methoxyflurane) are associated with **renal toxicity** due to fluoride ion release, this is not the primary or most severe respiratory complication of Trilene with soda lime. - The main concern with Trilene and soda lime is the formation of a **toxic airway irritant**. *Hepatotoxicity* - **Halothane** is more classically associated with **hepatotoxicity** (halothane hepatitis) due to metabolism into toxic intermediates. - **Trilene** itself is not primarily known for causing severe hepatotoxicity, and the interaction with soda lime does not specifically target the liver for toxicity. *Myocardial depression* - Many inhaled anesthetics, including Trilene, can cause some degree of **myocardial depression**. - However, this is a general effect of the anesthetic on cardiac function and is not a unique or specific complication arising from the **interaction with soda lime** that produces dichloroacetylene.
Community Medicine
1 questionsWhat is the key characteristic of Body Mass Index (BMI) considerations for the Asian population?
NEET-PG 2012 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 521: What is the key characteristic of Body Mass Index (BMI) considerations for the Asian population?
- A. Increased morbidity at lower values (Correct Answer)
- B. BMI cut-offs for obesity differ from international standards
- C. Increased morbidity at higher BMI values
- D. Obesity is defined as > 25 kg/m2
Explanation: ***Increased morbidity at lower values*** - Due to differences in body composition and fat distribution, Asian populations tend to experience **higher risks of developing obesity-related diseases** (e.g., type 2 diabetes, cardiovascular disease) at **lower BMI values** compared to non-Asian populations. - This increased morbidity at lower BMI values highlights the need for population-specific BMI cut-offs for health risk assessment. *BMI cut-offs for obesity differ from international standards* - While it is true that **BMI cut-offs for obesity differ for Asian populations**, this option does not fully describe *why* these cut-offs differ. - The difference in cut-offs is precisely *because* increased morbidity is seen at lower BMI values, making this option less specific than the correct answer. *Increased morbidity at higher BMI values* - While morbidity does increase at higher BMI values in all populations, this statement is **true for Caucasians and other populations**, but the defining characteristic for Asian populations is the *lower* BMI at which morbidity risk begins to significantly increase. - This option does not capture the unique aspect of BMI and health risks in the Asian population. *Obesity is defined as > 25 kg/m2* - For many Asian populations, a BMI of **> 25 kg/m²** is often used as the cut-off for **overweight**, not necessarily obesity, and **obesity is often defined at > 27.5 kg/m² or 30 kg/m² depending on the specific group**. - The international standard for obesity (BMI ≥ 30 kg/m²) is often considered too high for many Asian populations to capture risk effectively.
Internal Medicine
3 questionsMadarosis is seen in ?
Ataxia, nystagmus, and ophthalmoplegia are seen in which of the following conditions?
Which visual disturbance is commonly associated with Vitamin B12 deficiency?
NEET-PG 2012 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 521: Madarosis is seen in ?
- A. None of the options
- B. Addison's disease
- C. Acromegaly
- D. Hypothyroidism (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hypothyroidism*** - **Madarosis**, specifically the loss of the **outer third of the eyebrows**, is a classic sign of **hypothyroidism** due to decreased thyroid hormone levels affecting hair follicle growth [1]. - Other common symptoms include **fatigue**, **weight gain**, **cold intolerance**, and **dry skin**. *Addison's disease* - This condition involves **adrenal insufficiency**, primarily causing symptoms like **hyperpigmentation**, low blood pressure, and fatigue. - **Hair loss** is generally not a prominent feature, and madarosis is not typically seen. *Acromegaly* - Characterized by excessive **growth hormone** production, leading to enlargement of hands, feet, and facial features. - While it can cause some changes in hair texture, **madarosis** is not a common clinical manifestation. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Hypothyroidism** is a direct cause of madarosis due to its impact on **hair follicle metabolism** [1]. - The other conditions listed do not typically present with this specific type of eyebrow hair loss.
Question 522: Ataxia, nystagmus, and ophthalmoplegia are seen in which of the following conditions?
- A. 3rd nerve palsy
- B. Wernicke encephalopathy (Correct Answer)
- C. Myasthenia gravis
- D. Chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia
Explanation: ***Wernicke encephalopathy*** - This condition is characterized by the classic triad of **ataxia**, **nystagmus**, and **ophthalmoplegia** (often presenting as external ophthalmoplegia), alongside confusion [2]. - It results from a **thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency** [2], [3], commonly seen in chronic alcoholics or individuals with severe malnutrition. *Myasthenia gravis* - This is an **autoimmune disorder** affecting the neuromuscular junction, leading to fluctuating muscle weakness that worsens with activity [1]. - While it can cause **ophthalmoplegia** (especially ptosis and diplopia), it does not typically present with ataxia or nystagmus. *3rd nerve palsy* - A **third nerve palsy** specifically affects the oculomotor nerve, causing a constellation of symptoms including ptosis, pupillary dilation, and inability to move the eye up, down, or medially. - While it causes **ophthalmoplegia** affecting one eye, it does not typically cause nystagmus or ataxia. *Chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia* - This is a mitochondrial disorder characterized by **slowly progressive weakness** of the extraocular muscles, leading to bilateral ptosis and limitation of eye movements. - It causes a specific type of **ophthalmoplegia** but is not typically associated with nystagmus or prominent ataxia.
Question 523: Which visual disturbance is commonly associated with Vitamin B12 deficiency?
- A. Centrocaecal scotoma (Correct Answer)
- B. Binasal hemianopia
- C. Constriction of peripheral vision
- D. Bitemporal hemianopia
Explanation: No relevant citations could be added to the original explanation because the provided references did not specifically address the association between Vitamin B12 deficiency and centrocaecal scotoma. ***Centrocaecal scotoma*** - **Vitamin B12 deficiency** can lead to optic neuropathy, which often manifests as a **centrocaecal scotoma**, affecting central and paracentral vision. - This visual impairment is due to **demyelination of the optic nerve fibers** caused by the deficiency. *Binasal hemianopia* - This type of visual field defect is rare and typically caused by lesions that compress the uncrossed retinal nerve fibers, such as **bilateral internal carotid artery aneurysms** or **bilateral optic nerve disease**. - It does not directly correlate with **Vitamin B12 deficiency**. *Constriction of peripheral vision* - **Peripheral vision loss** is associated with conditions like **glaucoma** or advanced **retinitis pigmentosa**. - It is not a characteristic visual disturbance of **Vitamin B12 deficiency**. *Bitemporal hemianopia* - This visual field defect is commonly caused by compression of the **optic chiasm**, most often due to a **pituitary adenoma**. - It results in loss of vision in the outer half of both visual fields and is not linked to **Vitamin B12 deficiency**.
Microbiology
1 questionsWhich of the following statements is false regarding yersiniosis?
NEET-PG 2012 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 521: Which of the following statements is false regarding yersiniosis?
- A. Gram-negative bacillus
- B. Caused by Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
- C. Caused by Yersinia pestis (Correct Answer)
- D. Caused by Yersinia enterocolitica
Explanation: ***Caused by Yersinia pestis*** - **Yersinia pestis** is the causative agent of **plague**, not typical yersiniosis affecting the gastrointestinal tract. - Yersiniosis generally refers to infections caused by other *Yersinia* species like *Y. enterocolitica* and *Y. pseudotuberculosis*. *Gram-negative bacillus* - *Yersinia* species, including *Y. enterocolitica* and *Y. pseudotuberculosis*, are indeed **Gram-negative bacilli**. - This characteristic is fundamental to their classification and bacterial structure. *Caused by Yersinia pseudotuberculosis* - **Yersinia pseudotuberculosis** is a recognized cause of **yersiniosis**, particularly affecting children. - It can cause symptoms such as **abdominal pain** and **mesenteric lymphadenitis**, mimicking appendicitis. *Caused by Yersinia enterocolitica* - **Yersinia enterocolitica** is the **most common cause of yersiniosis** in humans. - It is responsible for a range of symptoms including **gastroenteritis**, **acute enteritis**, and **mesenteric lymphadenitis**.
Ophthalmology
4 questionsMassaging of nasolacrimal duct is done in ?
Most common cause of bilateral optic atrophy is:
What condition is characterized by cherry red spot at the macula with retinal whitening?
What is the primary mechanism of pathogenesis in acute angle closure glaucoma?
NEET-PG 2012 - Ophthalmology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 521: Massaging of nasolacrimal duct is done in ?
- A. Acute dacryocystitis
- B. Congenital dacryocystitis (Correct Answer)
- C. Conjunctivitis
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Congenital dacryocystitis*** - **Massaging the nasolacrimal duct** (Crigler massage) is a primary treatment for congenital dacryocystitis to promote the opening of the **valve of Hasner**. - This condition is due to incomplete canalization of the nasolacrimal duct, leading to tearing and discharge in infants. *Acute dacryocystitis* - This is an **acute infection of the lacrimal sac**, and massaging can worsen the condition by spreading the infection. - Treatment typically involves **antibiotics** and, if necessary, incision and drainage of any abscess. *Conjunctivitis* - **Conjunctivitis** is inflammation of the conjunctiva and is not related to obstruction of the nasolacrimal duct. - Massaging the nasolacrimal duct has no therapeutic role in treating conjunctivitis. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **congenital dacryocystitis** is a condition where nasolacrimal duct massage is a standard and effective treatment.
Question 522: Most common cause of bilateral optic atrophy is:
- A. Intracranial tumor
- B. Nutritional deficiency (B12/folate) (Correct Answer)
- C. Hereditary optic neuropathy
- D. Toxic optic neuropathy
Explanation: ***Nutritional deficiency (B12/folate)*** - **Nutritional optic neuropathy** due to deficiencies in B vitamins (especially B12, thiamine) and folate is a common cause of bilateral optic atrophy, particularly in **developing countries** and in populations with **malnutrition or chronic alcoholism**. - These deficiencies impair the **metabolism of retinal ganglion cells** and their axons, leading to symmetric bilateral optic nerve degeneration. - The condition is often **reversible in early stages** with appropriate supplementation. - **Note:** The "most common" cause varies by geographic location, population, and clinical setting. *Hereditary optic neuropathy* - **Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy (LHON)** and **autosomal dominant optic atrophy (ADOA)** are major causes of bilateral optic atrophy, especially in **younger patients**. - LHON typically presents in young males (15-35 years) with **sequential bilateral visual loss**. - These are among the **most common inherited optic neuropathies** and should always be considered in bilateral cases. *Intracranial tumor* - Intracranial tumors typically cause **unilateral optic atrophy** due to direct compression of one optic nerve. - **Bilateral optic atrophy** can occur with **chiasmal or suprasellar tumors** (pituitary adenomas, craniopharyngiomas) but is less common. - Usually presents with **visual field defects** (bitemporal hemianopia) before significant atrophy develops. *Toxic optic neuropathy* - **Toxic optic neuropathies** result from exposure to substances such as **methanol, ethambutol, tobacco-alcohol amblyopia**, or isoniazid. - Can cause bilateral symmetric optic atrophy but are **exposure-dependent** and less prevalent in general population. - **Tobacco-alcohol amblyopia** may overlap with nutritional deficiency.
Question 523: What condition is characterized by cherry red spot at the macula with retinal whitening?
- A. CRVO
- B. CRAO (Correct Answer)
- C. Diabetic retinopathy
- D. Syphilitic retinopathy
Explanation: ***CRAO*** - **Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO)** is characterized by **sudden, profound, painless monocular vision loss**. - The classic funduscopic finding is a **cherry-red spot at the macula** with diffuse **retinal whitening** due to ischemia. *CRVO* - **Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO)** presents with **painless vision loss** but typically shows **hemorrhages**, **dilated tortuous veins**, and **cotton wool spots** on funduscopic exam. - It does not usually cause retinal whitening or a cherry-red spot. *Diabetic retinopathy* - **Diabetic retinopathy** is characterized by **microaneurysms**, **hemorrhages**, **hard exudates**, and **cotton wool spots**, and can lead to neovascularization. - It does not present with acute retinal whitening or a cherry-red spot in the macula. *Syphilitic retinopathy* - **Syphilitic retinopathy** can cause a variety of presentations, including **retinal vasculitis**, **chorioretinitis**, and **optic neuritis**. - It does not typically manifest as a cherry-red spot with diffuse retinal whitening at the macula.
Question 524: What is the primary mechanism of pathogenesis in acute angle closure glaucoma?
- A. Increased secretion of aqueous humor
- B. Outflow obstruction due to anatomical factors (Correct Answer)
- C. Increased absorption of aqueous humor
- D. Decreased ciliary body function
Explanation: ***Outflow obstruction due to anatomical factors*** - **Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG)** occurs due to a sudden blockage of the **trabecular meshwork**, which is the primary drainage pathway for aqueous humor. - This blockage is caused by anatomical predispositions, such as a **narrow anterior chamber angle**, relatively large lens, and **pupillary block** leading to iris bombé with peripheral iris bowing forward. - The iridocorneal angle closure prevents aqueous humor drainage, causing **rapid IOP elevation**. *Increased secretion of aqueous humor* - While increased aqueous humor production can contribute to elevated intraocular pressure, it is **not the primary mechanism** in acute angle-closure glaucoma. - This mechanism is more relevant in **open-angle glaucoma** or conditions with ciliary body overactivity. - AACG's hallmark is **outflow obstruction**, not increased production. *Decreased ciliary body function* - Decreased ciliary body function would **reduce aqueous humor production**, leading to **hypotony** (low IOP), not elevated pressure. - This is the opposite of what occurs in AACG, where IOP rises dramatically due to impaired drainage. - Ciliary body dysfunction is seen in conditions like **uveitis** or post-surgical complications. *Increased absorption of aqueous humor* - **Increased absorption** of aqueous humor would **reduce intraocular pressure**, which is the opposite of what occurs in acute angle-closure glaucoma. - The disease is characterized by a **rapid and severe rise in intraocular pressure** due to impaired outflow, not enhanced absorption. - Normal aqueous absorption occurs via trabecular and uveoscleral pathways, both of which are blocked in AACG.