Anatomy
7 questionsSkeletal derivative of 2nd pharyngeal arch -
Which of the following is derived from endoderm?
In which region of the human spine is the number of vertebrae usually constant?
All the following are characteristics of the oculomotor nerve except:
Nucleus gracilis and nucleus cuneatus are seen in?
Which cranial nerve is not associated with the nucleus ambiguus?
All are derived from ectoderm except for which of the following?
NEET-PG 2012 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 411: Skeletal derivative of 2nd pharyngeal arch -
- A. Malleus
- B. Incus
- C. Stapes (Correct Answer)
- D. Maxilla
Explanation: ***Stapes*** - The **2nd pharyngeal arch** (also known as the hyoid arch) gives rise to several structures, including Reichert's cartilage, which forms the **stapes** bone, the styloid process, the lesser horn of the hyoid, and the upper part of the hyoid body. - Its muscles include the **stapedius**, stylohyoid, posterior belly of the digastric, and muscles of facial expression. *Malleus* - The **malleus** is derived from the **1st pharyngeal arch** (Meckel's cartilage), along with the incus. - The 1st pharyngeal arch is also responsible for forming the malleus, incus, and mandible. *Incus* - Similar to the malleus, the **incus** also originates from the **1st pharyngeal arch** (Meckel's cartilage). - Both the malleus and incus are crucial components of the middle ear ossicles but are structurally distinct from the stapes. *Maxilla* - The **maxilla** development is primarily from the **maxillary prominence** of the first pharyngeal arch, which is a subdivision of the first arch but does not originate from the 2nd arch. - It forms a significant portion of the midface and upper jaw, contributing to the nasal cavity and orbital floor.
Question 412: Which of the following is derived from endoderm?
- A. Gall bladder (Correct Answer)
- B. Lens
- C. Spleen
- D. Lymph nodes
Explanation: ***Gall bladder*** - The **gallbladder**, along with other organs of the **gastrointestinal tract** such as the liver, pancreas, and epithelial lining of the digestive and respiratory systems, originates from the **endoderm** [1]. - The endoderm forms the primitive gut tube, from which these accessory digestive organs bud off. *Lens* - The **lens of the eye** is derived from the **surface ectoderm**, which invaginates to form the lens vesicle. - This contrasts with the neural ectoderm, which forms the neural tube and retina. *Spleen* - The **spleen** is derived from the **mesoderm**, specifically from mesenchymal cells in the dorsal mesentery of the stomach. - It is involved in blood filtration and immune responses, making it a lymphoid organ. *Lymph nodes* - **Lymph nodes** are primarily derived from the **mesoderm**, specifically from specialized mesenchymal cells that form their connective tissue capsule and stroma. - The immune cells within the lymph nodes, such as lymphocytes, originate from hematopoietic stem cells that migrate into these developing structures.
Question 413: In which region of the human spine is the number of vertebrae usually constant?
- A. Cervical (Correct Answer)
- B. Thoracic
- C. Lumbar
- D. Sacral
Explanation: ***Cervical*** - The human cervical spine almost universally consists of **seven vertebrae (C1-C7)**, making it the most constant region in terms of vertebral number. - This consistent number is crucial for normal neck movement and protection of vital neurological structures. *Thoracic* - While typically having **12 vertebrae**, variations in the thoracic region can occur, with some individuals having 11 or 13 due to transitional vertebrae. - These variations are less common but indicate that the number is not as strictly constant as in the cervical spine. *Lumbar* - The lumbar spine commonly has **five vertebrae (L1-L5)**, but variations such as four or six lumbar vertebrae can be seen due to lumbarization or sacralization. - **Lumbarization** involves the first sacral segment detaching, while **sacralization** involves the fifth lumbar vertebra fusing with the sacrum. *Sacral* - The sacrum is formed by the fusion of **five sacral vertebrae (S1-S5)**, but the number of *individual identifiable* vertebrae before fusion, or in cases of incomplete fusion, can vary. - The sacral region itself is a fused structure, and while it originates from five segments, the concept of "number of vertebrae" can be ambiguous due to its characteristic fusion.
Question 414: All the following are characteristics of the oculomotor nerve except:
- A. Carries parasympathetic nerve fibres
- B. Supplies inferior oblique muscle
- C. Enters orbit through the inferior orbital fissure (Correct Answer)
- D. Enters orbit through the superior orbital fissure
Explanation: ***Enters orbit through the inferior orbital fissure*** - The oculomotor nerve **does not** enter the orbit through the **inferior orbital fissure**; it enters via the **superior orbital fissure**. - The **inferior orbital fissure** transmits structures like the **maxillary nerve (V2)**, **zygomatic nerve**, and **inferior ophthalmic vein**. *Carries parasympathetic nerve fibres* - The oculomotor nerve contains **parasympathetic preganglionic fibers** that synapse in the **ciliary ganglion** [1]. - These fibers control **pupillary constriction** (via the **sphincter pupillae**) and **accommodation** (via the **ciliary muscle**) [1]. *Supplies inferior oblique muscle* - The **inferior oblique muscle** is one of the **extraocular muscles** innervated by the **oculomotor nerve (CN III)** [2]. - This muscle works to **elevate** and **externally rotate** the eye [2]. *Enters orbit through the superior orbital fissure* - The oculomotor nerve indeed passes through the **superior orbital fissure** to enter the orbit. - This fissure serves as the passage for several cranial nerves and vessels, including the **oculomotor (III)**, **trochlear (IV)**, **abducens (VI)**, and branches of the **ophthalmic nerve (V1)**.
Question 415: Nucleus gracilis and nucleus cuneatus are seen in?
- A. Medulla (Correct Answer)
- B. Temporal lobe
- C. Midbrain
- D. Pons
Explanation: ***Medulla*** - The **nucleus gracilis** and **nucleus cuneatus** are located in the **dorsal medulla** and are crucial for processing **conscious proprioception**, **vibration**, and **fine touch**. - These nuclei receive input from the fasciculus gracilis and fasciculus cuneatus (dorsal column tracts) and are part of the dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway. - They give rise to the **internal arcuate fibers** which decussate and form the **medial lemniscus**. *Pons* - The pons contains several important nuclei, including the **pontine nuclei** (involved in motor coordination), nuclei of cranial nerves V, VI, VII, and VIII, and the **locus coeruleus**. - The dorsal column nuclei are not located in the pons. *Temporal lobe* - The **temporal lobe** is part of the cerebral cortex and is primarily involved in **auditory processing**, memory formation, and language comprehension. - It contains structures like the hippocampus and amygdala, but not the dorsal column nuclei. *Midbrain* - The **midbrain** contains nuclei such as the **red nucleus**, **substantia nigra**, and nuclei of cranial nerves III and IV, involved in motor control and eye movements. - The nucleus gracilis and nucleus cuneatus are not found in the midbrain.
Question 416: Which cranial nerve is not associated with the nucleus ambiguus?
- A. Cranial Nerve X (Vagus)
- B. Cranial Nerve XI (Accessory)
- C. Cranial Nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal)
- D. Cranial Nerve XII (Hypoglossal) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Cranial Nerve XII (Hypoglossal)*** - The **hypoglossal nucleus** in the medulla is the origin for CN XII, which primarily controls **tongue movements** [1]. - It does not receive motor fibers from the nucleus ambiguus, as its function is unrelated to the pharyngeal or laryngeal musculature. *Cranial Nerve X (Vagus)* - Motor fibers for the muscles of the **pharynx** and **larynx** from the nucleus ambiguus contribute to the vagus nerve. - The vagus nerve also provides parasympathetic innervation to the **thoracic and abdominal viscera**. *Cranial Nerve XI (Accessory)* - Cranial root contributions from the nucleus ambiguus exit with the vagus nerve to innervate the **laryngeal muscles**. - The **spinal root** of the accessory nerve, originating from the cervical spinal cord, innervates the **sternocleidomastoid** and **trapezius muscles**. *Cranial Nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal)* - The nucleus ambiguus provides motor innervation for the **stylopharyngeus muscle** via the glossopharyngeal nerve. - This muscle plays a role in **swallowing** and elevates the pharynx.
Question 417: All are derived from ectoderm except for which of the following?
- A. Hair follicles
- B. Nails
- C. Lens of the eye
- D. Adrenal cortex (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Adrenal cortex*** - The adrenal cortex is derived from the **intermediate mesoderm**, specifically from the cells lining the posterior abdominal wall. The cells migrate to develop into the adrenal cortex. - It produces various steroid hormones, including **aldosterone**, **cortisol**, and **androgens**, which regulate diverse bodily functions. *Lens of the eye* - The lens of the eye is derived from the **surface ectoderm**. It forms from an invagination of the surface ectoderm called the lens placode. - Its primary function is to **focus light** onto the retina. *Hair follicles* - Hair follicles develop from the **surface ectoderm** [1]; they are invaginations of the epidermis that extend into the dermis. - They produce hair, which provides **insulation** and **protection** [1]. *Nails* - Nails are also derivatives of the **surface ectoderm**, forming thickened plates on the dorsal surface of the distal phalanges. - They provide **protection** to the fingertips and aid in grasping objects.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhich of the following is an acquired condition?
NEET-PG 2012 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 411: Which of the following is an acquired condition?
- A. Polymastia (supernumerary breasts)
- B. Polythelia (extra nipples)
- C. Mastitis (Correct Answer)
- D. Amastia (absence of breast tissue)
Explanation: ***Mastitis*** - **Mastitis** is an **inflammatory condition** of the breast, often caused by bacterial infection, particularly common during **lactation** [1]. - It is an **acquired condition** as it develops after birth due to external or internal factors, not present at birth. *Polymastia (supernumerary breasts)* - **Polymastia** is a **congenital condition** where additional breast tissue develops along the **milk line**. - This condition is present at birth and results from *embryological development anomalies*, not acquired later in life. *Polythelia (extra nipples)* - **Polythelia** refers to the presence of **accessory nipples** along the embryonic milk line and is a **congenital anomaly**. - Like polymastia, it is present from birth due to *developmental errors* and is not an acquired condition. *Amastia (absence of breast tissue)* - **Amastia** is a rare **congenital anomaly** characterized by the complete absence of breast tissue, nipple, and areola. - It is a **birth defect**, meaning it is present from birth and not an acquired condition.
Physiology
2 questionsPeripheral and central chemoreceptors may both contribute to the increased ventilation that occurs as a result of which of the following?
Which of the following hormones does not mediate its action through cAMP?
NEET-PG 2012 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 411: Peripheral and central chemoreceptors may both contribute to the increased ventilation that occurs as a result of which of the following?
- A. A decrease in arterial oxygen content
- B. A decrease in arterial blood pressure
- C. An increase in arterial carbon dioxide tension (Correct Answer)
- D. A decrease in arterial oxygen tension
Explanation: ***An increase in arterial carbon dioxide tension*** - An increase in **arterial PCO2** (hypercapnia) leads to a rapid decrease in the **pH of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)**, which strongly stimulates **central chemoreceptors** in the medulla. - While overwhelmingly driven by central chemoreceptors, a significant increase in **arterial PCO2** also causes a slight decrease in **arterial pH**, which can additionally stimulate **peripheral chemoreceptors** in the carotid and aortic bodies, leading to increased ventilation. *A decrease in arterial oxygen content* - A decrease in **arterial oxygen content** (e.g., due to anemia or carbon monoxide poisoning) without a significant drop in **arterial PO2** primarily affects oxygen delivery to tissues. - It does not directly stimulate peripheral chemoreceptors, which are sensitive to **PO2**, not content, nor does it affect central chemoreceptors directly to increase ventilation in this manner. *A decrease in arterial blood pressure* - A decrease in **arterial blood pressure** is sensed by **baroreceptors** and primarily triggers cardiovascular reflexes (e.g., increased heart rate and vasoconstriction) to restore blood pressure. - It does not directly stimulate peripheral or central chemoreceptors to significantly increase ventilation unless severe hypoperfusion leads to significant changes in arterial blood gases. *A decrease in arterial oxygen tension* - A decrease in **arterial oxygen tension (PO2)**, especially when it falls below approximately 60 mmHg, acts as a potent stimulus for **peripheral chemoreceptors**. - However, **central chemoreceptors** are primarily sensitive to **PCO2** and CSF pH, and a decrease in **arterial PO2** alone has little direct effect on their activity.
Question 412: Which of the following hormones does not mediate its action through cAMP?
- A. Glucagon
- B. Follicle stimulating hormone
- C. Estrogen (Correct Answer)
- D. Luteinizing hormone
Explanation: ***Estrogen*** - **Estrogen** is a **steroid hormone** that mediates its action by binding to intracellular receptors, forming a complex that directly influences gene transcription. - Steroid hormones, due to their **lipophilicity**, can cross the cell membrane and do not typically rely on cell surface receptors or second messengers like cAMP. *Glucagon* - **Glucagon** acts on a **G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR)**, specifically a Gs-coupled receptor, leading to the activation of adenylyl cyclase. - This activation increases the intracellular concentration of **cAMP**, which then activates protein kinase A to mediate its effects, primarily on glucose metabolism. *Follicle stimulating hormone* - **FSH** binds to a **GPCR** on target cells, activating the Gs protein pathway. - This activation stimulates **adenylyl cyclase** and increases intracellular **cAMP** levels, which are critical for its role in gamete development. *Luteinizing hormone* - **LH**, like FSH, binds to a cell surface **GPCR** that activates the Gs protein. - This leads to the stimulation of **adenylyl cyclase** and an increase in **cAMP**, mediating its effects on steroidogenesis and ovulation.